Exam Number/Code : NS0-153

Exam Name : Network Appliance Storege Networking

Questions and Answers :92 Q&As

Update Time:2010-09-02

Everybody knows that Network Appliance NS0-153 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take Network Appliance NS0-153 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best Network Appliance NS0-153 exam question information in Testsoon's rich Network Appliance NS0-153 study guide sources. All NS0-153 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the Network Appliance NS0-153 real exam.

Testsoon NS0-153 Practice Exam is audited by our certified subject matter experts and published authors for development. We are sure Testsoon NS0-153 Practice Exam is one of the highest quality Q&As in the world. It covers nearly 100% real questions and answers, including the entire testing scope. Testsoon guarantees you pass NS0-153 exam in the first try.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the NACP NS0-153 exam (Network Appliance Storege Networking) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Network Appliance Storage Networking Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a NACA certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Network Appliance Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam Number/Code : 000-420

Exam Name : IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0

Questions and Answers :100 Q&As

Update Time:2010-05-09

000-420 exam is an important IBM certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon IBM technical experts have collected and certified 120 questions and answers of 000-420 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0 and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 000-420 preparation tests you can pass the 000-420 exam easily, get the IBM Information Management certification and go further on IBM career path.

Testsoon Practice Exams for IBM 000-420 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the IBM Information Management 000-420 exam (IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 000-420 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 000-420 Exam. The 000-420 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam Number/Code : 000-032

Exam Name : Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V1

Questions and Answers :59 Q&As

Update Time:2010-08-25

000-032 exam is an important IBM certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon IBM technical experts have collected and certified 120 questions and answers of 000-032 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Foundations of IBM Cloud and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 000-032 preparation tests you can pass the 000-032 exam easily, get the IBM Specialist certification and go further on IBM career path.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Certified Specialist 000-032 exam (Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V1) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 000-032 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 000-032 Exam. The 000-032 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam Number/Code : 000-M75

Exam Name : IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test

Questions and Answers :40 Q&As

Update Time:2010-09-05

000-M75 exam is an important IBM certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence.Testsoon IBM technical experts have collected and certified 120 questions and answers of 000-M75 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 000-M75 preparation tests you can pass the 000-M75 exam easily, get the IBM Information Management certification and go further on IBM career path.

Testsoon offers free demo for IBM Information Management 000-M75 exam (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.(Formal version not provide PDF)

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the IBM Information Management 000-M75 exam (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 000-M75 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 000-M75 Exam. The 000-M75 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam Number/Code : 9L0-510

Exam Name : Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200

Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-05-22

Everybody knows that Apple 9L0-510 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take Apple 9L0-510 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best Apple 9L0-510 exam question information in Testsoon's rich Apple 9L0-510 study guide sources. All 9L0-510 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the Apple 9L0-510 real exam.

Testsoon offers free demo for MAC OS X 9L0-510 exam (Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the MAC OS X 9L0-510 exam (Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Testsoon 9L0-510 software is offered to help you test yourself to see whether you have mastered the Conducting Apple Unified Wireless Site Survey knowledge firmly and have the ability to make the right choice. We also provide a simulated and interactive environment where you can feel the real Apple test atmosphere and practice yourself to reduce your anxiety. Then you can be better prepared and have more confidence to enter the test center.

Both PDF and software format demos for Acpt 9L0-510 Exam are offered by Testsoon for free. You can try 9L0-510 free demo before you decide to buy the full version preparation material. Acpt details are researched and produced by our Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get "9L0-510 exam" questions from different websites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200(Acpt) exam try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  Apple 9L0-510

Title    :  Mac OS X Server Essentials 10.6 200

1. Which utility should you use to manage preferences assigned to computer accounts?

A. Server Admin

B. Directory Utility

C. Server Preferences

D. Workgroup Manager

Answer: D

2. Which statement best describes a mobile user account?

A. A user account created by Setup Assistant on a portable computer.

B. An account that users can log in to only from a computer on a wireless network.

C. An account that users can log in to from either a Mac OS X or a Windows computer.

D. A user account that has been migrated from an Active Directory server to an Open Directory server.

E. A network user account that is copied to the local directory node of the computer when the user logs in.

Answer: E

3. Review the screenshot of the Permissions pane in Server Admin, and then answer the question below.

You have assigned permissions to a folder, as illustrated. What access does the user, Pat, have to the folder?

A. Pat has read-only access to the folder.

B. Pat has write-only access to the folder.

C. Pat does not have any access to the folder.

D. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.

Answer: D

4. In Mac OS X Server, preference manifests allow Workgroup Manager to ________.

A. store a common set of preferences in a directory

B. read related blocks of managed preferences at user login

C. associate preferences to a computer using a specific IP address

D. manage preferences for applications that are not already managed by default by Workgroup Manager

Answer: D

5. Which feature is available in the Software Update service in Mac OS X Server?

A. Restrict client computers to downloading Apple software updates from your software update server only.

B. Automatically download all Apple software updates, but serve only selected updates to client computers.

C. Restrict client computers' access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses.

D. Create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, alongside Apple software updates.

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 9L0-062

Exam Name : Mac OS X v10.6 Troubleshooting Exam

Questions and Answers : 65 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-06-16

9L0-062 exam is an important Apple certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon Apple technical experts have collected and certified 84 questions and answers of 9L0-062 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Mac OS X v10.6 Troubleshooting Exam and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 9L0-062 preparation tests you can pass the 9L0-062 exam easily, get the ACTC certification and go further on Apple career path.

Testsoon offers free 9L0-062 dumps,9L0-062 Practice exam,9L0-062 exam questions for Apple MAC OS X (Mac OS X v10.6 Troubleshooting Exam). You can check out the question quality and usability of our 9L0-062 practice exam before you decide to buy it. Before you purchase our 9L0-062 Q&A, you can click the link below to download the latest 9L0-062 pdf dumps.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the MAC OS X 9L0-062 exam (Mac OS X v10.6 Troubleshooting Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Like actual certification exams, our Practice Tests are in multiple-choice (MCQs) Our Apple 9L0-062 Exam will provide you with exam questions with verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. High quality and Value for the 9L0-062 Exam:100% Guarantee to Pass Your Acpt exam and get your Acpt Certification.

Exam Number/Code : 000-527

Exam Name : WebSphere ILOG JRules 6.x Application Development

Questions and Answers : 60 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-07-06

Testsoon Practice Exams for IBM IBM certifications I 000-527 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development. Testsoon 000-527 braindumps including the examination question and the answer, complete by our senior IT lecturers and the IBM certifications I product experts, included the current newest 000-527 examination questions.

Our Exam 000-527 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 000-527 Exam. The 000-527 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

If you prepare for the exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the WebSphere 000-527 exam (ProCurve Secure WAN) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

　　Exam    :   000-527

WebSphere ILOG JRules 6.x Application Development

　　Title     :

　　Version  :   V8.02

1. What is the default name of the Rule Execution Server Console web-application?

A. localhost

B. bres_admin

C. bres

D. res

Answer: C

2. In order to use a value editor for business rules in Rule Studio, you must develop this editor in:

A. Swing

B. SWT

C. .NET

D. JavaScript

Answer: A

3. A hosted transparent decision service is a:

A. rule-based application that runs in background on the operating system.

B. rule-based application deployed and running on a cluster.

C. rule-based application that triggers no rules.

D. dynamically generated web service that runs for a ruleset.

Answer: D

4. Which of the following activities is not supported by the Rule Execution Server module?

A. Deploying rules

B. Monitoring ruleset execution

C. Designing BOM

D. Debugging rules

Answer: C

5. Which one of these actions cannot be triggered by a query in Rule Studio?

A. Changing the priority of a rule

B. Moving a rule to a target package.

C. Renaming a rule.

D. Deleting a rule

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 000-006

Exam Name : IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation

Questions and Answers : 158 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-07-06

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed IBM Certifition - IBM 000-006 practice exam services with the IBM 000-006 book and IBM 000-006 exam papers. IBM 000-006 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the IBM 000-006 lab and scenarios and the IBM 000-006 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful IBM 000-006 online test takers, you would pass the actual IBM 000-006 exam too!

We provide the latest high quality 000-006 practice exam for the customers, we guarantee your success at the first attempt with only our 000-006 exam questions, if somehow you do not pass the exam at the first time, we will not only arrange FULL REFUND for you, but also provide you another exam of your claim, ABSOLUTELY FREE!

　　Exam    :  000-006

IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation

　　Title     :

　　Version  :  V8.02

1. Which two options should be included in a custom adapter design document? (Choose two.)

A. supported platforms, Java version, log file locations

B. input requirements, installation instructions, prerequisites

C. process flow diagram, debugging information and log file information

D. prerequisites, supported platforms, process flow diagrams, source code

E. security certificate configuration, installation location, input requirements

Answer: BC

2. Click the Exhibit button.

Based on the organization chart and list of roles, which option is correct for this IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 configuration?

A. A user in the On Demand Incorporated business unit can be granted the DESIGNER organizational role.

B. Only users in the Engineering and any sub tree business units can be granted the DESIGNER organizational role.

C. A provisioning policy with DESIGNER organizational role as membership can only be created in the

Engineering business unit.

D. Users in the On Demand Incorporated and sub tree business units will automatically be granted the EMPLOYEE organizational role

Answer: A

3. Which steps are needed to create the password policy design?

A. define password policy scope, select password settings, document password policy design

B. define password policy requirements, analyze password settings, document password policy design

C. gather current password settings, analyze password policy, define password scope, document password policy design

D. gather password policy requirements, define password policy scope, define password settings, document password policy design

Answer: D

4. The Business Continuity Review describes the system availability characteristics of the solution design. In a typical high availability (HA) configuration, a load balancer is configured in front of several peer masters for the directory server. Which statement is true regarding load balancing in an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) HA solution design?

A. If a primary master goes down, all traffic to that master is held until the master is available.

B. Load balancing of write traffic is unwise, because it leads to a possibility of an update conflict.

C. If the primary system goes down, the remaining systems do not need to be able to bear the work load.

D. The Tivoli Identity Manager dataservices component will assist the load balancer in the redirecting of requests to one of the other replicated Tivoli Identity Manager servers.

Answer: B

5. Which option is relevant to gathering requirements and creating an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) system architecture document?

A. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, identify timelines for project phases, and delegate responsibility

B. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, identify network topology, and ensure business continuity planning

C. formulate list of questions, identify interviewees, discuss organization chart structure, and discuss Tivoli Identity Manager ACI and group security model

D. discuss firewall rules, discuss certificate installations for HTTPS communication, and discuss Tivoli Identity Manager Web application security and hijack-prevention features

Answer: B

6. Which two join directives can be used when multiple provisioning policies affect the same account? (Choose two.)

A. Xor

B. Not

C. And

D. None

E. Union

Answer: CE

7. Which information is stored in a certificate used to secure the connection between IBM Tivoli Identity

Manager Server and its adapters?

A. certificate expiration date

B. certificate encryption type

C. certificate requester's name

D. certificate encryption strength

Answer: A

8. Which sequence of actions best describes a secure practice for sensitive data in an IBM Tivoli Identity

Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) database?

A. Schedule periodic database backups regularly in order to prevent losing sensitive data.

B. Enable security on the WebSphere Application Server and disallow running the WebSphere Application Server using a non-root account.

C. Restrict network traffic to those ports or systems needed by the deployment only. If you write your own application and use a Tivoli Identity Manager API to retrieve sensitive data, encrypt the data before sending it over the network.

D. Restrict operating system access to database files. Limit the privileges of the operating system accounts (administrative, root-privileged, or DBA) to the least privileges needed, change the default passwords, and enforce periodic password changes.

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 000-152

Exam Name : System x Technical Principles V10

Questions and Answers : 46 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-07-13

It is well known that 000-152 exam test is the hot exam of IBM certification. testsoon offer you all the Q&A of the 000-152 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass 000-152 exam at the first time!

000-152 exam training is available in various formats to best suit your needs and learning style from Testsoon. Whether you are a hands-on tactile learner, visually or even a textbook training veteran, we has the 000-152 resources that will guarantee you to pass your 000-152 practice exam at the first time!

Testsoon IBM System 000-152 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior IBM lecturers and experts. They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable. 000-152 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the exam.

Testsoon 000-152 braindumps can ensure you a passing score in the test. However, if you fail the 000-152 exam at the first attempt after using our products, we will arrange a full refund to you. You just need to send your 000-152 score report and some relevant forms to us. After confirming your information, we give your money back as soon possible to eliminate your worries.

Exam Number/Code : NS0-154

Exam Name : Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator

Questions and Answers : 151 Q&As

Update Time: 2010-07-29

It is well known that NS0-154 exam test is the hot exam of Network Appliance certification. testsoon offer you all the Q&A of the NS0-154 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass NS0-154 exam at the first time!

Testsoon NS0-154 Practice Exams for Network Appliance NS0-154 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the NACP NS0-154 exam (Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Testsoon NS0-154 software is offered to help you test yourself to see whether you have mastered the Conducting Netapp Unified Wireless Site Survey knowledge firmly and have the ability to make the right choice. We also provide a simulated and interactive environment where you can feel the real Netapp test atmosphere and practice yourself to reduce your anxiety. Then you can be better prepared and have more confidence to enter the test center.

Exam Number/Code : 220-701

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)

Questions and Answers :511 Q&As

Update Time:2010-05-18

This test is appropriate for you if you are an entry-level IT professional. After passing the 220-701 test you are required to pass 220-701 exam. After passing both the exams, you can work as an IT Technician, Enterprise Technician, PC Technician, Desktop Support Technician, Field Technician or PC Support Specialist. The A+ Essential exam 220-701 validates your skills and knowledge on different types of hardware and operating systems, basic networking as well as soft skills and office communication. This is a vendor neutral entry-level test, which can be used for the preparation of many advanced certification such as MCSE, CCNA etc. Please visit the CompTIA Website to know more about A+ certification.

CompTIA A+ 220-701 exam material provides you with comprehensive Practice Test questions with precise and accurate answers.

Testsoon will inform the corresponding customers to download the updated version in order to make sure all the customers can pass the test successful. Testsoon, a key to success! Under the help of Testsoon, anything is possible! Trust your choice, trust Testsoon; you can get 100% Best Results!

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-701

Title    :  CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)

1. Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?

A. T-Connector

B. BNC

C. RJ-45

D. LC

Answer: C

2. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network?  (Select TWO).

A. USB 001

B. \\computername\sharename

C. SNMP

D. IP_ip_address

E. IEEE 1394

Answer: BD

3. Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?

A. DVD-DL

B. CD-RW

C. CD-R

D. DVD-R

Answer: A

4. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?

A. The print queue window from system tray

B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel

C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel

D. Properties of the port within Device Manager

Answer: B

5. Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).

A. 1x

B. 3x

C. 6x

D. 8x

E. 24x

Answer: AD

6. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports.  Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?

A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.

B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.

C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.

D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.

Answer: B

7. Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).

A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.

B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.

C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.

D. The printers IP address has changed.

E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.

Answer: CD

8. Which of the following protocols uses port 80?

A. SMTP

B. HTTP

C. HTTPS

D. FTP

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 220-702

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

Questions and Answers :455 Q&As

Update Time:2010-07-28

220-702 exam is appropriate for you if you are an entry-level IT professional. After passing the 220-702 test, you can work as an IT Technician, Enterprise Technician, PC Technician, Desktop Support Technician, Field Technician or PC Support Specialist. The A+ Practical Application exam 220-702 test validates your skills and knowledge on different types of hardware and operating systems, basic networking as well as soft skills and office communication. 220-702 CompTIAis a vendor neutral entry-level test, which can be used for the preparation of many-advanced certification such as MCSE, CCNA etc. Please visit the CompTIA Website to know more about CompTIA A+ certification.

Now you don't need to spend your time and money searching for 220-702 study materials, 220-702 books, 220-702 PDF, etc., this 220-702 tutorial kit contains everything you need to get certified. Just follow the instructions, focus on the 220-702 study material and getting certified will be easy.

If you do not pass the CompTIA A+ 220-702 exam on your first attempt using our Testsoon testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-702

Title    :  CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

1. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?

A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.

B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.

C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.

D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting?

A. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.

B. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.

C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.

D. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.

Answer: C

3. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. A virus has infected the system

B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file

C. Corrupt MBR

D. Boot sector corruption

Answer: C

4. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. The system has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higher than normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose and troubleshoot this problem?

A. Task Manager

B. NTBACKUP

C. FDISK

D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: D

5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they are unable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets the following output:

IP address169.254.2.4

Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0

Default Gateway.

Which of the following could be causing the issue?

A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured.

B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer.

C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server.

D. The default gateway is not specified.

Answer: C

6. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

A. They are using the wrong WEP key.

B. They have been infected with malware.

C. They have lost Internet connectivity.

D. They need to update their network device drivers.

Answer: B

7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. A dead CMOS battery

B. The OS is not installed on the hard drive

C. A faulty RAM

D. A faulty HDD connection

Answer: D

8. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?

A. Cable tester

B. Multimeter

C. Loop back plugs

D. Crossover cable

Answer: A

Exam Number/Code : 350-029

Exam Name : CCIE SP Written Exam

Questions and Answers :159 Q&As

Update Time:2010-05-28

"CCIE", also known as 350-029 exam, is a Cisco certification. Preparing for the 350-029 exam? Searching 350-029 Test Questions, 350-029 Practice Exam, 350-029 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 159 Q&A to your 350-029 exam preparation. In the 350-029 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed Cisco Certifition - Cisco 350-029 practice exam services with the Cisco 350-029 book and Cisco 350-029 exam papers. Cisco 350-029 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the Cisco 350-029 lab and scenarios and the Cisco 350-029 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful Cisco 350-029 online test takers, you would pass the actual Cisco 350-029 exam too!

If you do not pass the CCIE 350-029 exam (CCIE Service Provider Written exam) on your first attempt using our Testsoon testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam        :  Cisco 350-029

Title    :  CCIE Service Provider Written Exam

1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?

A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.

B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.

C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.

D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).

E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.

Answer: D

2. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?

A. additive

B. none

C. no-export

D. no-advertise

E. local-as

Answer: D

3. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?

A. ATT (Attached) bit

B. IS-Type bits

C. P (Partition) bit

D. Down bit

E. PN (Pseudonode) bit

F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit

Answer: A

4. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?

A. AF Class

B. Drop Probability

C. CS (Class Selector Value)

D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)

E. IP Precedence

F. Queue Depth

Answer: B

5. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)?

A. Cisco NBAR Discovery

B. Cisco AutoQoS

C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB

D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard

E. CDP

Answer: C

6. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?

A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process

B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process

C. The network command within the BGP routing process

D. The set command within a route-map

E. The send-community command within a route-map

Answer: D

7. BGP best route selection process is based on what?

A. lowest cost

B. highest bandwidth

C. lowest hop-count

D. path attributes

E. lowest delay

F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth

Answer: D

8. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?

A. LSA type 1

B. LSA type 2

C. LSA type 3

D. LSA type 5

E. LSA type 7

F. LSA type 9

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : HH0-440

Exam Name : Storage Architect - Performance & Virtualization

It is well known that latest HH0-440 exam test is the hot exam of Hitachi certification. Testsoon offer you all the Q&A of the HH0-440 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass HH0-440 exam at the first time!

HH0-440 exam is an important Hitachi certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon Hitachi technical experts have collected and certified 117 questions and answers of HH0-440 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Storage Architect - Performance & Virtualization and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon HH0-440 preparation tests you can pass the HH0-440 exam easily, get the Hitachi Data Systems certification and go further on Hitachi career path.

Testsoon offers free demo for Hitachi Data Systems HH0-440 exam (Storage Architect - Performance & Virtualization). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Hitachi Data Systems HH0-440 exam (Storage Architect - Performance & Virtualization) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Once you purchase our products, we will offer you the best service. After you purchase our product, we will offer free update in time for 90 days. Whatever you have any questions, we will help you solve it. And in 3 weeks we will offer you free updates, so please pay attention our site at all times.

Exam        :  Hitachi HH0-440

Title    :  Storage Architect - Performance & Virtualization

1. In the Universal Storage Platform (USP) family, what is the maximum number of external ports that one external LDEV can be attached to?

A.2

B.4

C.8

D.16

Answer: C

2. Which three key metrics are needed for sizing industry standard applications? (Choose three.)

A.IO read/write ratios

B.port speed

C.IO rates and data transfer rates

D.cache read hit ratios

E.number of ACP/BED pairs

Answer: ACD

3. Which three parameters will help to calculate a server's maximum LUN queue depth to avoid the risk of SCSI timeouts? (Choose three.)

A.The number of active LUNs mapped to a storage port.

B.The number of active servers in the cluster accessing the active LUNs.

C.The number of command tags supported by the storage port.

D.The number of disk drives supporting the LUN configuration.

E.The total number of LUNs mapped to the storage port.

Answer: ABC

4. Which three statements are true for Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose three.)

A.HGLAM manages multiple instances of Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM).

B.HGLAM assigns load balancing algorithms only at the server level.

C.HGLAM can alert which server is impacted when a fabric switch goes down.

D.HGLAM reports IO rate at the HBA level.

E.HGLAM can report a USP cache failure.

Answer: ACD

5. Which level of Write Pending is normal for a busy OLTP Universal Storage Platform (USP) system adequately managing the destaging of writes?

A.0% to 20%

B.20% to 30%

C.30% to 40%

D.40% to 50%

Answer: B

6. Click the Exhibit button.

Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

A.insufficient cache

B.loss of redundancy in write cache

C.heavy random writes to RAID5

D.heavy random writes to SATA drives

E.failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups

Answer: CDE

7. Solaris IOSTAT shows that response times are degrading for a number of LUNs and that these LUNs are 100% busy. The active queue values are in a range up to, but not exceeding 8, and the wait queue values are in the range from 0 to 5 when the active queue is 7 or 8.

Which condition is implied by these values?

A.These are normal values for busy LUNs with a LUN queue depth of 8.

B.There are no more Tags available on this storage port due to heavy IO load.

C.There are no more Tags available for these LUNs at the port due to heavy IO load.

D.The HBA LUN queue depth is set incorrectly.

Answer: A

8. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing.

Which two actions should be considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)

A.Configure the paths using high-speed mode.

B.Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.

C.Spread the load across more RAID Groups.

D.Spread the load across more LUNs.

Answer: AB

Exam Number/Code : HH0-400

Exam Name : Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity

Testsoon offers free HH0-400 dumps,HH0-400 Practice exam,HH0-400 exam questions for Hitachi Data Systems certification(Hitachi Certified Network Associate). You can check out the question quality and usability of our HH0-400 practice exam before you decide to buy it. Before you purchase our HH0-400 Q&A, you can click the link below to download the latest HH0-400 pdf dumps.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Hitachi Data Systems HH0-400 exam (Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam HH0-400 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your HH0-400 Exam. The HH0-400 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  Hitachi HH0-400

Title    :  Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity

1. Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy Asynchronous?

A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin

B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)

C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)

D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network overhead

Answer: A

2. What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)

A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.

B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.

C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.

D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.

Answer: AD

3. A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database's data and log volumes.

Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly dropped table?

A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.

B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery facility.

C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the corruption event.

D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.

Answer: A

4. A customer's regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.

How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?

A.1

B.2

C.3

D.4

Answer: B

5. What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)

A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.

B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.

C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from merging.

D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage array.

Answer: AB

6. A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database's data and log volumes.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.

B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.

C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.

D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.

Answer: CD

Exam Number/Code : HH0-330

Exam Name : HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise

It is well known that latest HH0-330 exam test is the hot exam of Hitachi certification. Testsoon offer you all the Q&A of the HH0-330 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass HH0-330 exam at the first time!

Testsoon HH0-330 is written to coincide with the real test by the experienced IT experts and specialists. With the complete collection of Testsoon Questions and Answers, Testsoon HH0-330 is high enough to help the candidates to easy pass this exam easily without any other study materials and no need to attend the expensive training class.

Testsoon offers free demo for Hitachi Data Systems HH0-330 exam (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Hitachi Data Systems HH0-330 exam (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam HH0-330 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your HH0-330 Exam. The HH0-330 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  Hitachi HH0-330

Title    :  HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise

1. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)

A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.

B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other applications.

C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.

D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.

Answer: BC

2. Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?

A./usr/bin/

B./usr/sbin

C./HORCM/

D./HORCM/usr/bin/

Answer: D

3. You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.

Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)

A.3390-3 LUN

B.LUSE LUN

C.OPEN-V LUN

D.OPEN-3 LUN

E.Virtual LVI/LUN

Answer: CDE

4. A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.

What is the result of the pairresync operation?

A.The pairresync completes immediately.

B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.

C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.

D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol

Answer: B

5. The CCI instance has failed to start.

What is the most likely cause?

A.The Command Device is labeled.

B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.

C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.

D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.

Answer: D

6. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)

A.The Command Device is user selected.

B.The Command Device is system selected.

C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.

D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.

Answer: AD

7. Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)

A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.

B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.

C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.

D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.

Answer: AD

8. The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device.

Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows server?

A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20

B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20

C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20

D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20

Exam Number/Code : 9L0-624

Exam Name : Mac OS X Directory Services 10.6 Exam

9L0-624 exam is an important Apple certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon Apple technical experts have collected and certified 74 questions and answers of 9L0-624 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Mac OS X Directory Services 10.6 Exam and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 9L0-624 preparation tests you can pass the 9L0-624 exam easily, get the ACTC certification and go further on Apple career path.

Testsoon 9L0-624 Practice Exams for Apple 9L0-624 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the MAC OS X 9L0-624 exam (Mac OS X Directory Services 10.6 Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Once you purchase our products, we will offer you the best service. After you purchase our product, we will offer free update in time for 90 days. Whatever you have any questions, we will help you solve it. And in 3 weeks we will offer you free updates, so please pay attention our site at all times.

Exam Number/Code : e20-340

Exam Name : clariion solutiongs implementation

E20-340 exam is an important EMC certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon EMC technical experts have collected and certified 284 questions and answers of E20-340 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the clariion solutiongs implementation and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon E20-340 preparation tests you can pass the E20-340 exam easily, get the Implemenation certification and go further on EMC career path.

Testsoon offers free pass4sure demo for e20-340 exam (clariion solutiongs implementation). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of Testsoon practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Implemenation e20-340 exam (clariion solutiongs implementation) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam e20-340 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your e20-340 Exam. The e20-340 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  EMC E20-340

Title    :  Clariion Solutiongs Implementation

1. After the initial CX4 configuration has been set up and persisted, a customer would like to add additional back-end and front-end ports. In the diagram, which logical port assignments will be given to port 1 and port 3, respectively?

A. Port 1 - BE1, Port 3 - FE3

B. Port 1 - BE2, Port 3 - FE2

C. Port 1 - FE1, Port 3 - BE2

D. Port 1 - FE3, Port 3 - BE2

Answer: A

2. Which cable type is required to connect the DAE2P to the DAE3P?

A. HSSDC - HSSDC

B. HSSDC2 - HSSDC2

C. HSSDC - HSSDC2

D. HSSDC - HSSDC3

Answer: B

3. What is the maximum number of drives and LUNs supported by a CX3-40?

A. 240 drives and up to 1,024 LUNs

B. 256 drives and up to 1,024 LUNs

C. 480 drives and up to 2,048 LUNs

D. 512 drives and up to 4,096 LUNs

Answer: A

4. Which port is required at installation in order to configure a back-end bus on a CX4?

A. Port 0 A-Bus 0

B. Port 1 B-Bus 1

C. Port 0 A-Bus1

D. Port 3 B-Bus2

Answer: A

5. Using the Fibre Channel fan-in rule, what is the maximum number of storage systems a host can attach to?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: B

6. Which port would you use to Telnet directly into the CLARiiON?

A. Comm Port RS-232

B. Management LAN

C. Service LAN

D. SPS Serial Port RS-232

Answer: A

7. What is the hard-coded Ethernet IP address for a SP B service port in a CX3-20 and CX3-40?

A. 128.221.1.251

B. 128.122.2.251

C. 128.221.1.250

D. 128.122.2.250

Answer: A

8. According to EMC best practice, what is the proper sequence for powering up a CLARiiON array?

A. Power on SP A and then power on SP B

B. Power on the master switch and then power on each SP

C. Power on the master switch; both SPs will power on automatically

D. Turn on the power switch for each SPS and then power on the master switch

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : e20-510

Exam Name : business continuity specialist exam

Testsoon Practice Exams for EMC Specialist E20-510 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development. Testsoon E20-510 braindumps including the examination question and the answer, complete by our senior IT lecturers and the Specialist product experts, included the current newest E20-510 examination questions.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Specialist e20-510 exam (business continuity specialist exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our business continuity specialist exam Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Specialist certification examination. Details are researched and produced by EMC Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  EMC E20-510

Title    :  Emc Technology Foundations -Clariion

1. What is the default load balancing policy for hosts connected to a third party storage array with unlicensed PowerPath software?

A.Adaptive

B.No redirect

C.Round robin

D.Basic failover

Answer: A

2. Which symcli command is used to define an SRDF relationship between dynamic SRDF enabled devices?

A.symdg create

B.symrdf create

C.symdg createpair

D.symrdf createpair

Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button.

The graphic shows a single-hop SRDF/AR configuration. What is the correct state for the identified TimeFinder and SRDF device pairs prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?

A.1 - synchronized; 2 - split; 3 - split

B.1 - split; 2 - synchronized; 3 - split

C.1 - synchronized; 2 - suspended; 3 - split

D.1 - synchronized; 2 - suspended; 3 - synchronized

Answer: C

4. What is a Protected BCV Restore operation?

A.Restores a BCV to a Standard but does not propagate Standard writes to the BCV

B.Following the Restore operation, the BCV is automatically split from the Standard to assure it is protected

C.Incrementally restores the contents of the BCV to a standard with which the BCV has no prior relationship

D.Restores a BCV to a Standard and allows propagation of Standard writes to the BCV but not the BCVs mirror

Answer: A

5. What happens when you perform a consistent activation of a TimeFinder/Clone session?

A.The clones are write protected

B.Multi-session consistency is invoked

C.Creates a new TimeFinder/Clone consistency group

D.The Enginuity Consistency Assist feature (ECA) is invoked

Answer: D

6. Which Replication Manager role defines Application Sets, Jobs, and Schedules?

A.UNIX Administrator

B.Storage Administrator

C.Database Administrator

D.Replication Administrator

Answer: C

7. What is the order for an SRDF/A deltaset operation?

A.1 - Capture, 2 - transmit, 3 - receive, 4 - apply

B.1 - Send, 2 - receive, 3 - acknowledge, 4 - apply

C.1 - Capture, 2 - send, 3 - apply, 4 - acknowledge

D.1 - Send, 2 - acknowledge, 3 - apply, 4 - commit

Answer: A

8. If the customer's Recovery Point Objective is 120 seconds, what should the SRDF/A cycle time be in seconds?

A.30

B.60

C.120

D.240

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : e20-512

Exam Name : business continuity specialist exam for storage admins

It is well known that latest e20-512 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. Testsoon offer you all the Q&A of the e20-512 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass e20-512 exam at the first time!

Testsoon offers free demo for EMC Certification e20-512 exam (business continuity specialist exam for storage admins). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

E20-512 exam is an important EMC certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon EMC technical experts have collected and certified 112 questions and answers of E20-512 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the business continuity specialist exam for storage admins and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon E20-512 preparation tests you can pass the E20-512 exam easily, get the EMC Certificaion certification and go further on EMC career path.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the EMC Certification e20-512 exam (business continuity specialist exam for storage admins) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our business continuity specialist exam for storage admins Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a EMC Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by EMC Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  EMC  E20-512

Title    :  Symmetrix Business Continuity Specialist for Storage Admins

1. What does a PowerPath pseudo-device represent?

A. A logical path that leads to a single physical device

B. A logical path set that leads to multiple physical devices

C. A physical path that leads to multiple logical devices

D. A path set that leads to a single logical device

Answer: D

2. What is the correct sequence of events when a synchronous write occurs in SRDF/S?

1. Host issues a write I/O

2. Remote Symmetrix acknowledges receipt of write

3. Write is transmitted to remote Symmetrix cache

4. Write is received in cache at source Symmetrix

5. Source Symmetrix acknowledges write completion to host

A. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

C. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

D. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Answer: B

3. PowerPath PPME with Open Replicator is planned for use in a migration of 172 LUNs. The source array is a Symmetrix 8830; the target array is a DMX-3.

For PPME-enabled migrations using Open Replicator, what is the configurable maximum number of concurrent replication sessions that can be supported in this configuration?

A. 16

B. 128

C. 256

D. 512

Answer: D

4. A customer requests that you create a user account for administering jobs and storage pools in EMC Replication Manager, but without controlling the storage array itself.

What is the required account type that will satisfy only these operations?

A. Database Administrator

B. Operator

C. Power DBA

D. Power User

Answer: C

5. When performing LUN masking operations to support Open Replicator, what must be done to ensure that data can be accessed between two Symmetrix systems?

A. Grant device access to the WWN of the controlling FA ports for the remote devices on the remote FA ports

B. Grant device access to the WWN of the host HBA ports for the remote devices on the controlling FA ports

C. Grant device access to the WWN of the host HBA ports for the remote devices on the remote FA ports

D. Grant device access to the WWN of the remote FA ports for the remote devices on the controlling FA ports

Answer: A

6. What is the purpose of the half delete action in SRDF/Star?

A. Used to dissolve RDF relationships when a partner device is unavailable

B. Used to initiate a Star recovery procedure

C. Used to reset the first two mirror positions to fully invalid

D. Used to reverse the data flow after a link failure

Answer: A

7. When using Open Replicator to do a Hot Pull without the donor_update option set, what is the result of terminating the session before it is complete?

A. Requests for data not yet copied will cause a priority retrieve of the data from the remote volume.

B. Session will run to completion before actually terminating.

C. The local volume will revert to its state prior to the Hot Pull.

D. There is data loss on the remote volume.

Answer: D

8. A customer would like to create a point-in-time copy of the data for development purposes. The customer environment is not performance-sensitive. The customer would like to access the point-in-time copy at 9 A.M.

The amount of time required to copy the data from the source to the target is 60 minutes and application downtime is not available. Which solution is recommended?

A. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create and activate a clone with the background copy (-copy) option at 8 A.M.

B. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone with the background copy (-copy) option at or before 8 A.M. Activate the clone at 9 A.M.

C. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone using the deferred copy mode (default) prior to 9 A.M. Activate the clone with the consistent option at 9 A.M.

D. Use TimeFinder/Clone to create a clone with the Precopy (-precopy) option at or before 8 A.M. Activate the clone at 9 A.M.

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : E20-520

Exam Name : calriion solutions specialist exam

Everybody knows that EMC E20-520 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take EMC E20-520 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best EMC E20-520 exam question information in Testsoon's rich EMC E20-520 study guide sources. All E20-520 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the EMC E20-520 real exam.

Testsoon EMC Specialist E20-520 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior EMC lecturers and experts. They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable. E20-520 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the exam.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Specialist E20-520 exam (calriion solutions specialist exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our calriion solutions specialist exam Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Specialist certification examination. Details are researched and produced by EMC Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  EMC E20-520

Title    :  CALRiiON Solutions Specialist Exam

1. In what way does the CX Series improve upon the FC Series arrays?

A. Introduction of 2Gb front-end ports

B. Can hold more disk drives in less space

C. Native Support for Single Mode Fibre Cable

D. Employs switched back-end for increased bandwidth

Answer: B

2. What two [2] functions are disabled when PowerPath is installed without a license key?

A. Failover

B. Multipathing

C. Load balancing

D. Access to peer SP paths

Answer: BC

3. When entering a Navisphere CLI command, which variable specifies the CX-Series Storage Processor that will accept the command?

A. -h [hostname]

B. -d [devicepath]

C. -sp [storage processor]

D. -ip [ip address of storage processor]

Answer: A

4. Which SAN Copy menu option is used to monitor the progress of a copy session?

A. Status

B. Resume

C. Properties

D. Ownership

Answer: A

5. What are three [3] attributes of a Clone Private LUN?

A. Contains Fracture Logs.

B. Contains Write Intent Logs

C. Must be 128MB, or greater, in size.

D. Is assigned to one storage processor.

E. Shared by both storage processors simultaneously.

Answer: ACD

6. What are two [2] characteristics of DMP and PowerPath?

A. PowerPath must be deactivated using vxdiskadm.

B. Suppression of DMP is a menu item within vxdiskadm.

C. DMP needs special code to map CLARiiON's passive path.

D. DMP and PowerPath must be running together on the same host.

Answer: BC

7. Which two [2] CLARiiON arrays do not support the installation of SAN Copy?

A. CX200

B. CX300

C. CX400

D. CX500

E. CX600

F. FC4700

Answer: AB

8. What are three [3] best practices for configuring LUNs on a Solaris host?

A. Zone only one SP per HBA.

B. Use storage array based RAID.

C. Leave element size as CLARiiON default.

D. Use only DMP in single HBA environments.

E. Base RAID type on access pattern and application.

Answer: BCE

Exam Number/Code : e20-522

Exam Name : clariion solutions specialist exam for storage adminsitrator

It is well known that latest e20-522 exam test is the hot exam of EMC certification. exam4test offer you all the Q&A of the e20-522 real test . It is the examination of the perfect combination and it will help you pass e20-522 exam at the first time!

Testsoon offers free demo for Specialist e20-522 exam (clariion solutions specialist exam for storage adminsitrator). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

Our Testsoon products are top quality and will assist you in gaining a true understanding of e20-522 technologies, without resorting to e20-522 Study Guide. EMC e20-522 Study Guide which weve been providing from the last decade and the number of students which have been benefited from these e20-522 Study Guide and study notes are self speaking themselves.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Specialist e20-522 exam (clariion solutions specialist exam for storage adminsitrator) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our clariion solutions specialist exam for storage adminsitrator Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Specialist certification examination. Details are researched and produced by EMC Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  EMC  E20-522

Title    :  Clariion Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Adminsitrator

1. What is a supported host for a SnapView snapshot to be mounted?

A. On a secondary host multiple times

B. On a secondary host running a different O/S

C. On a secondary host running the same O/S

D. On the production host running Windows

Answer: B

2. Which feature does the PowerPath CLI provide?

A. Allows a host to access a storage group

B. Masks any of the LUNs on the CLARiiON to the host

C. Sets I/O rate limits on a per-path basis

D. Sets the load-balancing policy for a LUN

Answer: B

3. Which statement applies to a SnapView snapshot?

A. A snapshot is available within several minutes for secondary host access

B. A snapshot is dependent on the source LUN

C. A snapshot is independent of the source LUN

D. A snapshot requires a dedicated reserved LUN pool for each source LUN

Answer: B

4. What is one way a snapshot provides a point-in-time view of a source LUN?

A. Copying the original data to the reserved LUN pool the first time the data changes

B. Limiting the number of assigned snapshots to eight

C. Tracking the changes in the clone private LUN

D. Writing the new data to the reserved LUN pool the first time the data changes

Answer: A

5. NQM has been enabled. What is done with LUNs that are NOT explicitly part of an I/O class?

A. Automatically placed in a background class

B. I/Os are averaged across defined I/O classes

C. LUNs are ignored by NQM

D. Placed in the Unused LUNs class

Answer: B

6. What is one way a snapshot provides a point-in-time view of a source LUN?

A. Limiting the number of assigned snapshots to eight

B. Tracking the changes in the clone private LUN

C. Using pointers to track whether the data resides on the source LUN or in the reserved LUN pool

D. Writing the new data to the reserved LUN pool every time the data changes

Answer: C

7. Which CLARiiON feature allows for the creation of storage groups and the attachment of hosts?

A. Access Logix

B. HBA Connectivity

C. Navisphere Agent

D. SP Enablers

Answer: C

8. A MirrorView/A mirror has been configured with the "End of Last Update" value set to 15. An update cycle starts at 3:10

P.M. (15:10) and finishes at 3:30 P.M. (15:30).

When does the next cycle start?

A. 3:30 P.M. (15:30)

B. 3:35 P.M. (15:35)

C. 3:40 P.M. (15:40)

D. 3:45 P.M. (15:45)

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : E20-120

Exam Name : EMC Content Management Foundation Exam(CMF)

Our Testsoon  E20-120 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our E20-120 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. EMC Certification preparation Q and A provided by Cheat-test.com will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.

Testsoon offers free E20-120 dumps,E20-120 Practice exam,E20-120 exam questions for EMC Certification certification (EMC Certified Network Associate). You can check out the question quality and usability of our E20-120 practice exam before you decide to buy it. Before you purchase our E20-120 Q&A, you can click the link below to download the latest E20-120 pdf dumps.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the EMC Certification E20-120 exam (EMC Content Management Foundation Exam(CMF)) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  EMC  E20-120

Title    :  EMC Content Management Foundation Exam(CMF)

1. Which element of a workflow template represents a task in a business process?

A. state

B. activity

C. package

D. work item

Answer: B

2. Which statement about virtual document components is true?

A. To add an object to a virtual document, the object must be checked out.

B. An object can be a component of more than one virtual document simultaneously.

C. When an object is added to a virtual document, the Content Server makes a new copy of the object.

D. Once an object becomes a component of a virtual document, it can never be removed from the virtual document.

Answer: B

3. You are using Documentum Administrator to create a user.

To accomplish this, the default value for the Default Folder property is set to _____.

A. use the Temp cabinet

B. use the System cabinet

C. select any existing cabinet

D. create a new cabinet for the user

Answer: D

4. What can provide quick access to frequently referenced objects?

A. alias set

B. subscription

C. replica object

D. relation object

Answer: B

5. Where do you enable the drag and drop plugin for Webtop?

A. File menu

B. Tools menu

C. Preferences

D. Documentum Administrator

Answer: C

6. When creating a permission set, what are the default values assigned to dm_owner and dm_world?

A. dm_world  None, dm_owner  Delete

B. dm_world - None, dm_owner - Write

C. dm_world  Read, dm_owner - Delete

D. dm_world  Read, dm_owner  Write

Answer: C

7. Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from one folder to another within Webtop?

A. It is a default feature.

B. The drag and drop plugin must be enabled.

C. The feature must be enabled in Preferences.

D. The feature is only available through the clipboard.

Answer: A

8. Lifecycles are implemented as an instance of which object type?

A. dm_policy

B. dm_relation

C. dm_lifecycle

D. dm_state_type

Answer: A

Exam Number/Code : e20-040

Exam Name : emc technology foundations

E20-040 exam is an important EMC certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon EMC technical experts have collected and certified 642 questions and answers of E20-040 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the emc technology foundations and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon E20-040 preparation tests you can pass the E20-040 exam easily, get the Technology Foundations certification and go further on EMC career path.

Testsoon offers free demo for Technology Foundations e20-040 exam (emc technology foundations). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Technology Foundations e20-040 exam (emc technology foundations) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our emc technology foundations Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Technology Foundations certification examination. Details are researched and produced by EMC Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Once you purchase our products, we will offer you the best service. After you purchase our product, we will offer free update in time for 90 days. Whatever you have any questions, we will help you solve it. And in 3 weeks we will offer you free updates, so please pay attention our site at all times.

Exam        :  EMC  E20-040

Title    :  EMC (r) Technology Foundations

1. In a CLARiiON array, which clone state would prevent a clone from being removed from a clone group?

A.Consistent

B.Fractured

C.Promoted

D.Synchronizing

Answer: D

2. When changes are made to a SnapView source LUN, where is the original data saved?

A.Cache memory

B.Clone Private LUN

C.PSM

D.Reserved LUN pool

Answer: D

3. In a CLARiiON array, what is a characteristic of a metaLUN?

A.Can be only expanded one time

B.Can be used with SnapView and MirrorView

C.Cannot be added to a storage group

D.Supported on FC and CX series arrays

Answer: B

4. How many bi-directional mirror relationships are allowed per CLARiiON array?

A.1

B.2

C.4

D.8

Answer: C

5. After Rainfinity completes a directory or share move, clients can access data through a logical view without having to remap to the new destination. What is the underlying physical location called that maps this logical view?

A.Data Mobility

B.Global Namespace

C.Proxy Service

D.VLAN Change

Answer: B

6. In a CLARiiON array, how is I/O handled when a LUN is expanding?

A.Continues to all component LUNs

B.Continues to base LUN only

C.Halted during expansion

D.Halted to the base LUN only

Answer: B

7. Which mechanism is used shorten the synchronization process after the link goes down between the primary and secondary mirrors?

A.Fracture log

B.Persistent Storage Manager

C.Primary arrays write cache

D.Reserved LUN pool

Answer: A

8. In a NetWorker environment, which EMC Disk Library feature is used to export virtual tapes to physical tapes, while preventing blind spots?

A.Auto Archive

B.Embedded Storage Node

C.Embedded Media Server

D.Remote Copy

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 642-845

Exam Name : Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks

Everybody knows that Cisco 642-845 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take Cisco 642-845 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best Cisco 642-845 exam question information in Testsoon's rich Cisco 642-845 study guide sources. All 642-845 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the Cisco 642-845 real exam.

Testsoon Practice Exams for Cisco CCNP 642-845 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the CCNP 642-845 exam (Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Testsoon Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Testsoon Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  Cisco 642-845

Title    :  Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks

1. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)

A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.

B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.

C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.

D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.

E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.

Answer: CE

2. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.

B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.

C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.

D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.

Answer: BC

3. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)

A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).

B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.

C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.

D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.

E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.

Answer: BD

4. Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)

A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.

B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.

C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.

D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.

E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.

F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.

Answer: BDF

5. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.

B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.

C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.

D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.

E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.

F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.

Answer: BD

6. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)

A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.

B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.

C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.

D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.

E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.

F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.

Answer: BD

7. Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?

A. G.711, PCM

B. G.728, LDCELP

C. G.729, CS-ACELP

D. G.729A, CS-ACELP

Answer: A

8. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)

A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.

B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.

C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.

D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.

E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.

F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).

Answer: CE

Exam Number/Code : 642-481

Exam Name : Cisco Rich Media Communications(CRMC)

Preparing for the 642-481 exam? Searching 642-481 Test Questions, 642-481 Practice Exam, 642-481 Dumps? Testsoon 642-481 is written to coincide with the real test by the experienced IT experts and specialists. With the complete collection of Testsoon Questions and Answers, Testsoon  642-481 is high enough to help the candidates to pass this exam easily without any other study materials and no need to attend the expensive training class.

Everybody knows that Cisco 642-481 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take Cisco 642-481 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best Cisco 642-481 exam question information in Testsoon's rich Cisco 642-481 study guide sources. All 642-481 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the Cisco 642-481 real exam.

Testsoon Practice Exams for Cisco APE for Validating Knowledge 642-481 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the APE for Validating Knowledge 642-481 exam (Cisco Rich Media Communications(CRMC)) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  Cisco 642-481

Title    :  Cisco(r) Rich Media Communications(CRMC(r))

1. Which two statements accurately describe the EMP? (Choose two.)

A. It increases the number of voice-activated sessions that are supported.

B. It increases the number of continuous presence layouts.

C. It increases the number of audio-only conference sessions that are supported.

D. It allows the MCU to perform rate matching.

E. It is required for simultaneous support for H.323 and SCCP continuous presence sessions.

Answer: BE

2. Which device allows a H.323 video endpoint to establish a conference with a videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN?

A. H.225 gateway

B. H.320 gateway

C. H.323 proxy

D. HD gateway

Answer: B

3. Bob's Bicycles currently has a room-based videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN via three BRIs. The company is converting to H.323 and would like to continue using the BRIs to make video calls to the suppliers. Which device should the company deploy?

A. Cisco IPVC 3511

B. Cisco IPVC 3521

C. Cisco IPVC 3526

D. Cisco IPVC 3540

Answer: B

4. Bob's Bicycles recently implemented a H.323 videoconferencing solution, and wishes to conduct videoconferences with the main supplier over the extranet using the existing four-digit numbering plan at each company. Due to overlapping dial plans, the called digits must be manipulated to allow the video calls to be completed. Which solution can support this?

A. H.323 proxy

B. gatekeeper

C. directory gatekeeper

D. IP-to-IP gateway

Answer: D

5. The Acme Roller Skates Company has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCUE. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows:

A third conference is desired with the following requirements:

Conference 3:

three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.

B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.

C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three conferences of three people each.

D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the number of required services.

Answer: A

6. Which call would most likely require an audio transcoder?

A. 128-kbps ISDN call to MCU

B. 128-kbps H.323 call to MCU

C. 128-kbps ISDN call to H.323 endpoint

D. 384-kbps ISDN call to H.323 endpoint

E. 384-kbps H.323 call to MCU

Answer: A

7. A customer wants to simultaneously support H.323 conferences with an aggregate of 20 active participants, and SCCP videoconferences with an aggregate of 30 active participants. All video sessions will use voice-activated switching. Which device should be deployed to support this?

A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit

B. Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E

C. Cisco IPVC 3540-03A with EMP

D. Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module

E. Cisco IPVC 3540-10A with EMP

Answer: E

8. How is a H.323 MCU defined in Cisco CallManager so that H.323 endpoints can communicate with endpoints that are controlled by Cisco CallManager?

A. as a H.320 gateway

B. as a H.323 gateway

C. as a gatekeeper-controlled H.225 trunk

D. as a gatekeeper-controlled intercluster trunk

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 310-053

Exam Name : Sun Certified Enterprise Architect, Java, EE5 Upgrade Exam

Everybody knows that SUN 310-053 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take SUN 310-053 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best SUN 310-053 exam question information in Testsoon's rich SUN 310-053 study guide sources. All 310-053 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the SUN 310-053 real exam.

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed SUN Certifition - SUN 310-053 practice exam services with the SUN 310-053 book and SUN 310-053 exam papers. SUN 310-053 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the SUN 310-053 lab and scenarios and the SUN 310-053 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful SUN 310-053 online test takers, you would pass the actual SUN 310-053 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the SUN Other Certifications 310-053 exam (Sun Certified Enterprise Architect, Java, EE5 Upgrade Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  SUN 310-053

Title    :  Sun Certified Enterprise Architect, Java, EE5 Upgrade Exam

1. Your company is considering migrating a persistence module implemented using CMP entity beans to JPA.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.Each CMP entity bean can be mapped to a single JPA entity class.

B.The client code that accesses the CMP entity beans does not have to change.

C.JPA cannot capture all the kinds of relationships supported by CMP entity beans.

D.The resulting JPA persistence module can be used on both the client and the server.

E.The JNDI name of a JPA entity class can be customized to match that of the corresponding CMP entity bean.

F.Remote clients of the CMP entity beans must start using web services to access the JPA entity classes on the server.

Answer: AD

2. SOAP was selected as an integration technology for the flexibility of messaging styles it supports (in particular, how an XML payload can be presented in a SOAP message).

Which message-style statement is correct?

A.The body of an RPC-style SOAP message cannot be a literal message.

B.The XML payload for a document-style message cannot be an encoded message.

C.The XML payload for RPC and document-style messages guarantee XML payload delivery.D.An RPC-style message has the XML payload wrapped inside an operation element in a SOAP body.

Answer: D

3. Security restrictions in a use-case require that the behavior of an EJB business method vary according to the role of the user.How should this be achieved?

A.The deployment descriptor is written using the roles determined by the programmer.

B.The programmer determines a role reference and uses it in the code. This is mapped to a role in the deployment descriptor.

C.The business method determines the role of the user using JNDI and configuration information in the deployment descriptor.

D.The business method determines the role of the user using JAAS and configuration information in the deployment descriptor.

Answer: B

4. What are two advantages of using encapsulation in a multi-tier architecture? (Choose two.)A.Business components inherit behavior from the web container.

B.Complex web container behavior can be hidden behind simple interfaces.

C.Business logic can be modified without modifying objects that depend on it.

D.Database records can be accessed directly from the web tier to improve scalability and performance.

Answer: BC

5. A company has a legacy system that it is going to use Java EE technology to re-engineer. The legacy solution consists of active server pages and a relational database. The company is interested in changing DB vendors in the future and this requirement is key to moving forward. This is a web-based transactional sales system. The company will keep the relational database schema because it still meets business requirements and will not require re-engineering.

What is the best solution?

A.JSP, JDBC only

B.JSP, servlets, JDBC only

C.JSF, servlets, JPA, EJB3

D.JSF, servlets, DAO, JDBC

Answer: C

6. A mortgage company is building a system that allows customers to apply for a mortgage using a web application. A mortgage typically takes several days to process, so the customers receive results through an email message.

When a customer completes the mortgage form, the customer must click the Submit button. When the Submit button is clicked, the application sends the mortgage data to an external system for processing and displays a JSP indicating that the application has been accepted.Because the company's core business is mortgages, the architecture must guarantee the delivery of mortgage data between the web application and the external processing system.

In this situation, which technology should the web application use to send the mortgage data to the external processing system?

A.a JMS queue

B.XML over HTTP

C.a synchronous web service

D.an asynchronous web service

Answer: A

7. You are building a subsystem that has several complex components, but you want to hide that complexity from the client code.

Which pattern can you apply to hide this complexity?

A.Proxy

B.Bridge

C.Adaptor

D.Facade

E.Decorator

WArialZ

Answer: D

8. With the release of a new product line, there has been a significant increase in the volume of transactions on your web site. You need to scale your application and manage session failover.

What is the best option for scalability?

A.add additional web servers and application servers

B.introduce a High Availability pair and utilize sticky sessions

C.add additional application servers and implement DNS round robin

D.add additional application servers and use clustered HttpSession

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 310-502

Exam Name : Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator

The SUN 310-052 certificates give you possibility to work in any country of the world because they are acknowledged in all countries equally. This SUN 310-052 torrent certificate helps

not only to improve your knowledge and skills, but it also helps your career, gives a possibility for qualified usage of SUN 310-052 exam products under different conditions. The majority of companies in the sphere of information technologies require the presence of SUN 310-052 exams for the work in the company, and that makes obtaining this SUN 310-052 certificate necessary. Many IT specialists were not able to obtain the real SUN 310-052 certificate from the first attempt, which was the result of poor preparation for the examination, using preparatory SUN 310-052 study guide of poor quality.

If you prepare for 310-052 exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the  SUN Other Certifications 310-052 exam (Sun Certified Enterprise Architect for J2EE 5) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 310-502 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 310-502 Exam. The 310-502 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you pass test in your first try, and also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  SUN 310-052

Title    :  Sun Certified Enterprise Architect for J2EE 5

1. You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE technology should you use?

A. JAXP

B. JAXB

C. JAX-WS

D. JAX-RPC

Answer: C

2. What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)

A. Broker

B. Facade

C. Provider

D. Decorator

E. Requestor

F. Interceptor

Answer: ACE

3. You are writing a utility that searches for existing web services provided by large companies through UDDI. Your web site allows the user to input search criteria using event-driven, state-managed GUI screens, performs the search, and displays them in a formatted HTML page. Which technologies would you use for this application?

A. JSP and JAXB

B. JSF and JAXR

C. JSF and JAX-WS

D. JSP and JAX-WS

Answer: B

4. An online sporting goods store's web application uses HTTPSession to store shopping carts. When the application is initially deployed, the business plan predicts only a few customers will access the site. Over time, the store projects a steady increase in volume.

The deployment plan calls for a single web container in the initial deployment. As demand increases, the plan calls for multiple web containers on separate hardware with clustered HTTPSession objects.

Which two principles will help the application meet the requirements and optimize performance? (Choose two.)

A. The application should store as much as possible in HTTPSession objects.

B. The application should NOT make frequent updates to HTTPSession objects.

C. The application should make coarse-grained updates to HTTPSession objects.

D. The application should create new HTTPSession objects instead of updating existing objects.

Answer: BC

5. A developer creates a Java web service to be used by consumers in an SOA. This SOA uses a UDDI service registry. How can the developer make the new service available to consumers?

A. deploy to the registry using JAXR

B. publish to the registry using JAXR

C. query the registry using JAX-RPC

D. target the registry using JAX-RPC

Answer: B

6. With the release of a new product line, there has been a significant increase in the volume of transactions on your web site. You need to scale your application and manage session failover. What is the best option for scalability?

A. add additional web servers and application servers

B. introduce a High Availability pair and utilize sticky sessions

C. add additional application servers and implement DNS round robin

D. add additional application servers and use clustered HttpSession

Answer: D

7. You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements:

Users access the system over the Internet using HTML.

An email message is sent to the user confirming the order.

Users must log in and are validated using LDAP.

The product catalog is stored in a relational database.

All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.

Orders must not be lost.

Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?

A. JNDI

B. JMS

C. JAX-WS

D. RMI-IIOP

Answer: B

8. A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent objects. You have done this to maximize performance when navigating through the model. Why does JPA offer better performance for this task?

A. JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.

B. JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.

C. JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.

D. The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 310-044

Exam Name : SUN CERTIFIED NETWORK ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9

310-044 exam is an important Sun certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon Sun technical experts have collected and certified 320 questions and answers of 310-044 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the SUN CERTIFIED NETWORK ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 310-044 preparation tests you can pass the 310-044 exam easily, get the Solaris SCNA certification and go further on Sun career path.

Testson Practice Exams for sun 310-044 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the SCNA9 310-044 exam (SUN CERTIFIED NETWORK ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  SUN 310-044

Title    :  Sun Certified Network Administrator for Solaris 9

1. When must a local host try to route through an intermediary host to reach a remote host?

A. when the remote host is NOT in the ARP cache

B. when the local host IP address was obtained using RARP

C. when the routing table on the local host has been updated by RIP

D. when the network address of the remote host differs from the network address of the local host

Answer: D

2. Which three statements about fragmentation are true? (Choose three.)

A. The fragment size is determined by the MTU size of the network interface layer.

B. The fragment size always remains constant for a packet across all networks through which the packet passes.

C. Fragmentation is a mechanism for dividing a class of IP addresses to allow more efficient use of the address space.

D. Fragmentation occurs, when necessary, at each router a packet passes through based on the MTU for the interface.

E. Fragmentation is a mechanism for dividing data where the volume of data is more than can be transmitted in a single packet.

F. Fragmentation only applies when the upper layer protocol is TCP because TCP delivers a continuous stream of data that must be fragmented.

Answer: ADE

3. A workstation does not have access to the 200.20.50.0 network. A system administrator needs to enable access to a host at IP address 200.20.50.100. Other hosts on the same network must remain inaccessible. Which command accomplishes this?

A. route add myrouter   200.20.50.100  0

B. netstat -a  200.20.50.100   200.20.50.0

C. route add net  200.20.50.100  myrouter 1

D. route add host  200.20.50.100   myrouter  1

E. ifconfig -a qfe2   200.20.50.100  broadcast 200.20.50.255

Answer: D

4. A system administrator is attempting to add a default router using the command:

route add default 192.20.20.1 0

You get the error message "Network is unreachable." The IP address of the host you are using is 192.20.20.10, and the router 192.20.20.1 is reachable using a "direct" route. The router 192.20.20.1 is on the network in question and is a viable default router.

What causes the error message "Network is unreachable"?

A. The metric of 0 should be 1.

B. You already have several default routers.

C. Your default router should be reachable indirectly.

D. You should act as the default router to your own network.

E. Default routers can only be added through a file at boot-up .

Answer: A

5. You have created an IPv6 tunnel between two hosts. Which two statements are true about tunnelling? (Choose two.)

A. Tunnelled traffic is always encrypted.

B. Tunnelled traffic is always TCP or UDP in IPv6.

C. IPv6 Solaris tunnelling always involves an IP datagram encapsulating an IP datagram.

D. The IP header of the datagram that has encapsulated the tunnelled data contains the source address of the tunnel.

E. The tunnel source IP address is always the same as the source IP address in the IP header of the tunnelled (encapsulated) IP datagram.

Answer: CD

6. Given:

route add host lion tiger 1

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The command adds a static route to the routing table.

B. The command indicates that tiger is an intermediate host on this route.

C. The command causes hosts tiger and lion to update their routing tables.

D. All hosts on the lion network could be reached as a result of the command.

E. The command indicates that lion is the only intermediate host on this route.

Answer: AB

7. Which two are benefits of IPv6? (Choose two.)

A. faster ARP/RARP

B. smaller addresses

C. more efficient routing

D. smaller routing tables

E. eliminates broadcast traffic

Answer: CE

8. Which three statements about Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) are true? (Choose three.)

A. CIDR is also referred to as "supernetting."

B. CIDR uses netmasks to create network prefixes.

C. CIDR can only be applied to Class C network addresses.

D. CIDR applies to address spaces inside an organization only.

E. CIDR involves combining two or more contiguous address ranges.

Answer: ABE

Exam Number/Code : 310-019

Exam Name : Sun Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0

310-019 exam is an important Sun certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Testsoon Sun technical experts have collected and certified 242 questions and answers of 310-019 exam which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Sun Certified Associate for the Java Platform, Standard Edition, Exam Version 1.0 and enhance candidates' abilities. With Testsoon 310-019 preparation tests you can pass the 310-019 exam easily, get the SCJA certification and go further on Sun career path.

Testsoon 310-019 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 310-019 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. Our 310-019 Certification preparation Q and A provided by Testsoon.com will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.

If you do not pass the SUN Other Certifications 310-019 exam (Sun Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0) on your first attempt using our Testsoon testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam      :  SUN 310-019

Title    :  Sun Certified System Administrator for Solaris 10 OS.Part 1

1. Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. J2EE includes the MIDP API.

B. J2EE application developers need J2SE.

C. J2EE includes servlet APIs and EJB APIs.

D. J2EE applications depend on web servers.

E. J2EE runs on consumer and embedded devices.

Answer: BC

2. Which statement is true?

A. The JMS API is located in the java.jms package.

B. JMS provides interfaces to naming and directory services.

C. JMS enables an application to provide flexible, asynchronous data exchange.

D. JMS enables an application to provide tightly coupled, distributed communication.

Answer: C

3. Which is true about RMI?

A. RMI is used to create thin web clients.

B. RMI allows objects to be sent from one computer to another.

C. RMI is the Java API used for executing queries on a database.

D. RMI is used to develop applications for wireless mobile devices.

E. RMI is the transport protocol used by web servers and browsers.

Answer: B

4. Which is true?

A. A J2SE program can create no more than 10 concurrent threads.

B. The Java threading model provides equal processor time to all threads.

C. All threads created by a given Java program share the same invocation stack.

D. Threading allows GUI applications to perform lengthy calculations and respond to user events at the same time.

Answer: D

5. Which two are characteristics of an RDBMS? (Choose two.)

A. J2EE provides a cross-platform RDBMS.

B. An RDBMS represents data using two-dimensional tables.

C. An RDBMS represents data using three-dimensional tables.

D. Business-tier applications use session beans to represent rows in an RDBMS.

E. Java technologies provide capabilities for connecting a legacy RDBMS to a web application.

Answer: BE

6. A Java programmer wants to develop a small application to run on mobile phones. Which Java edition (or editions) are required to develop the application?

A. only J2SE

B. only J2EE

C. only J2ME

D. J2SE and J2EE

E. J2SE and J2ME

F. J2EE and J2ME

Answer: E

7. Which three about JMS are true? (Choose three.)

A. JMS is the acronym for Java Mail Service.

B. JMS supports an event-oriented approach to message reception.

C. JMS supports both synchronous and asynchronous message passing.

D. JMS does NOT depend on MOM (Messaging-Oriented Middleware) products.

E. JMS provides a common way for Java programs to access an enterprise messaging system's messages.

Answer: BCE

8. Which is true?

A. All JDBC drivers are pure Java.

B. The JDBC API is included in J2SE.

C. The JDBC API is an extension of the ODBC API.

D. JDBC is used to connect to MOM (Message-Oriented Middleware) products.

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 225-030

Exam Name : CDIA+ Certification

Everybody knows that CompTIA 225-030 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take CompTIA 225-030 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best CompTIA 225-030 exam question information in Testsoon's rich CompTIA 225-030 study guide sources. All 225-030 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the CompTIA 225-030 real exam.

Testsoon CDIA 225-030 Preparation Material provides everything what you will need to take your 225-030 Exam. The CDIA 225-030 Q&A Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precisely and logically.

Testsoon 225-030 Practice Exams for CompTIA 225-030 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you do not pass the CompTIA CDIA+ 225-030 exam (CDIA+ Certification Exam) on your first attempt using our Testsoon testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam        :  CompTIA 225-030

Title    :  CDIA+ Certification Exam

1. A company, Certkiller Inc, is using 90% of its network capacity. They plan to scan 5,000 images per day to a network file server. In order to meet the increased demands on the system, which of the following should be increased?

A. The network bandwidth.

B. The number of scanners.

C. The number of network servers.

D. The number of users on the network.

Answer: A

2. Who is most likely to determine the origin of the bottlenecks if the productivity of a new workflow system is

less than expected?

A. End-user

B. Help Desk

C. IT Department

D. System Integrator

Answer: D

3. An Implementation Plan for a new imaging application should contain which activities?

A. Forms design, create the document retention strategy document and layout the workflow rules and roles.

B. integrate the production imaging system into the exsiting netwoke,connect it with the legacy systems,upgrade all of the desktop computers.

C. Verify that images are delivered to the desktop, that the records are written in the database, and check that the images are stored on optical disks.

D. difine production producers,creat user and techcical documention,administration and plan the roll-out in the organization.

Answer: D

4. A content management solution has been designed for a company. In order to complete the implementation it will be necessary to remove user access to the content management database for several hours a day for several weeks. How should this requirement be addressed?

A. Solicit the vendors' input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.

B. Solicit the solution owner's input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.

C. Redesign the solution so that all of the implementation can be handles in one 24-hour period.

D. Indicate to the solution owner that the best time for implementation tasks is 10 pm - 12 am daily.

Answer: B

5. The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.  All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document Management System (DMS).  If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per week, how many images will be scanned per week?

A. 300

B. 360

C. 400

D. 600

Answer: B

6. A legal customer wants to place identifying marks on each document as it is scanned. What is the procedure commonly called?

A. Barcoding

B. Imprinting

C. Prefetching

D. Thresholding

Answer: B

7. All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:

A. change requests

B. lead- and lag-times.

C. resource requirements.

D. resource availability.

Answer: A

8. A customer is implementing a workflow system with electronic dossiers. During the design of the workflow it has been discovered that there are many exceptions to the process. What is the first step in handling the exceptions?

A. Validate exceptions through a third party.

B. Get a commitment on the number of exceptions.

C. Redesign the workflow system to handle every exception.

D. Recommend to the client that business processed be redesigned.

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 220-702

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

220-702 exam is appropriate for you if you are an entry-level IT professional. After passing the 220-702 test, you can work as an IT Technician, Enterprise Technician, PC Technician, Desktop Support Technician, Field Technician or PC Support Specialist. The A+ Practical Application exam 220-702 test validates your skills and knowledge on different types of hardware and operating systems, basic networking as well as soft skills and office communication. 220-702 CompTIAis a vendor neutral entry-level test, which can be used for the preparation of many-advanced certification such as MCSE, CCNA etc. Please visit the CompTIA Website to know more about CompTIA A+ certification.

Now you don't need to spend your time and money searching for 220-702 study materials, 220-702 books, 220-702 PDF, etc., this 220-702 tutorial kit contains everything you need to get certified. Just follow the instructions, focus on the 220-702 study material and getting certified will be easy.

If you do not pass the CompTIA A+ 220-702 exam on your first attempt using our Testsoon testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-702

Title    :  CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

1. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?

A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.

B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.

C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.

D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting?

A. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.

B. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.

C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.

D. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.

Answer: C

3. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. A virus has infected the system

B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file

C. Corrupt MBR

D. Boot sector corruption

Answer: C

4. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. The system has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higher than normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose and troubleshoot this problem?

A. Task Manager

B. NTBACKUP

C. FDISK

D. Disk Defragmenter

Answer: D

5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they are unable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets the following output:

IP address169.254.2.4

Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0

Default Gateway.

Which of the following could be causing the issue?

A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured.

B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer.

C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server.

D. The default gateway is not specified.

Answer: C

6. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

A. They are using the wrong WEP key.

B. They have been infected with malware.

C. They have lost Internet connectivity.

D. They need to update their network device drivers.

Answer: B

7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. A dead CMOS battery

B. The OS is not installed on the hard drive

C. A faulty RAM

D. A faulty HDD connection

Answer: D

8. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?

A. Cable tester

B. Multimeter

C. Loop back plugs

D. Crossover cable

Answer: A

Exam Number/Code : 220-701

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)

This test is appropriate for you if you are an entry-level IT professional. After passing the 220-701 test you are required to pass 220-702 exam. After passing both the exams, you can work as an IT Technician, Enterprise Technician, PC Technician, Desktop Support Technician, Field Technician or PC Support Specialist. The A+ Essential exam 220-701 validates your skills and knowledge on different types of hardware and operating systems, basic networking as well as soft skills and office communication. This is a vendor neutral entry-level test, which can be used for the preparation of many advanced certification such as MCSE, CCNA etc. Please visit the CompTIA Website to know more about A+ certification.

CompTIA A+ 220-701 exam material provides you with comprehensive Practice Test questions with precise and accurate answers.

Testsoon will inform the corresponding customers to download the updated version in order to make sure all the customers can pass the test successful. Testsoon, a key to success! Under the help of Testsoon, anything is possible! Trust your choice, trust Testsoon; you can get 100% Best Results!

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-701

Title    :  CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)

1. Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?

A. T-Connector

B. BNC

C. RJ-45

D. LC

Answer: C

2. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network?  (Select TWO).

A. USB 001

B. \\computername\sharename

C. SNMP

D. IP_ip_address

E. IEEE 1394

Answer: BD

3. Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?

A. DVD-DL

B. CD-RW

C. CD-R

D. DVD-R

Answer: A

4. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?

A. The print queue window from system tray

B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel

C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel

D. Properties of the port within Device Manager

Answer: B

5. Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).

A. 1x

B. 3x

C. 6x

D. 8x

E. 24x

Answer: AD

6. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports.  Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?

A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.

B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.

C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.

D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.

Answer: B

7. Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).

A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.

B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.

C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.

D. The printers IP address has changed.

E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.

Answer: CD

8. Which of the following protocols uses port 80?

A. SMTP

B. HTTP

C. HTTPS

D. FTP

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 220-602

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ 220-602 exam(IT Technician designation pathway)

Everybody knows that CompTIA 220-602 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take CompTIA 220-602 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best CompTIA 220-602 exam question information in Testsoon's rich CompTIA 220-602 study guide sources. All 220-602 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the CompTIA 220-602 real exam.

220-602 certifications can play certain role in acquiring a job and promotion, but they are never always the guarantee. In fact,many experts agree that the certification is most useful in applying for first job or low positions. In the high-level cases, they think that experience is more important. Almost all experts agree that the importance of a three-tier hierarchy: practical experience and a solid knowledge base, and finally to those IT certifications of 220-602 . Employers consider a degree as a broad knowledge base, and they hope their staffs have such a base.

Testsoon Practice Exams for CompTIA CompTIA A+ 220-602 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for 220-602 exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the 220-602 exam (CompTIA 220-602 (2007 Edition) IT Technician Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-602

Title    :  CompTIA A+ 220-602 (2007 Edition) IT Technician Exam

1. Which of the following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?

A. Copy

B. sysprep

C. xcopy

D. Shadow copy

Answer: B

2. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:

A. social engineering.

B. spoofing.

C. hacking.

D. cracking.

Answer: B

3. A technician installs a SATA controller card and moves the hard drive cable from the system board to the SATA controller. The system POSTs and the controller BIOS recognizes the hard drive but does not boot to the hard drive and start Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A. Windows cannot be booted from a controller card.

B. The hard drive must have Windows reinstalled because a new controller card was installed.

C. The SATA controller card was not set as a boot device in the computer BIOS.

D. The new controller must have the correct jumper settings for Windows mode.

Answer: C

4. After right-clicking on an applications shortcut icon and selecting Properties, which of the following will identify the location of the application?

A. Start In

B. Location

C. Shortcut key

D. Run

Answer: A

5. Which of the following IEEE standards applies to parallel data transmission?

A. IEEE 1394

B. IEEE 802.3

C. IEEE 802.11

D. IEEE 1284

Answer: D

6. Which of the following statements about cooling is true?

A. Adapter cards (e.g. modems) do not add to the heat generated in a computer case.

B. Bus mastering reduces the amount of heat generated inside a computer case.

C. Removing expansion slot covers can compromise cooling airflow design.

D. Periodic cleaning of the computer components inside the case has no effect on cooling efficiency.

Answer: C

7. A technician accesses a corporate users hard drive and notices that there are inappropriate images in their My Documents folder. Accessing this kind of material is a clear violation of company policy. Which of the following should the technician do?

A. Confront the user and tell them to remove the material.

B. Backup the files and delete them from the users folder.

C. Inquire with the manager about policies and procedures.

D. Ignore the files, this is the users personal documents folder.

Answer: C

8. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to troubleshoot a users network connectivity problem?

A. Run TRACERT from the users workstation.

B. Start with the Last Known Good Configuration and reboot the computer.

C. Replace the network interface card (NIC).

D. PING the users workstation.

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 220-601

Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials 220-601 Exam

Everybody knows that CompTIA 220-601 training practice is very important to the candidates for the preparation of certification exams. But it is very inconvenience to take CompTIA 220-601 training practice in a classroom. Candidates who cannot attend the classroom sessions shall select online training through various websites. It is very easy for the candidates to find the best CompTIA 220-601 exam question information in Testsoon's rich CompTIA 220-601 study guide sources. All 220-601 test candidates can make use of the facility and prepare for the CompTIA 220-601 real exam.

Testsoon Practice Exams for CompTIA CompTIA A+ 220-601 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the A+ 220-601 exam (CompTIA A+ Essentials 220-601 Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  CompTIA 220-601

Title    :  CompTIA A+ Essentials 220-601 Exam

1. After installing a new cable modem and new router, which of the following should be the order used to start up the devices?

A. Turn on the cable modem, then the router, and then the computer.

B. Turn on the cable modem, then the computer, and then the router.

C. Turn on the router, then the computer, and then the cable modem.

D. Turn on the computer, then the cable modem, and then the router.

Answer: A

2. The amount of power output from a power supply is rated in:

A. volts.

B. watts.

C. ampere hours.

D. joules.

Answer: B

3. A technician has installed a new video card and the computer will now only boot into VGA mode. Which of the following may be the cause of the problem?

A. There is an operating system incompatibility.

B. The incorrect drivers are installed.

C. The external monitor is not compatible.

D. The new card is not DVI compatible.

Answer: B

4. NTFS should be used for Windows XP rather than FAT32 because NTFS: (Select TWO).

A. allows for faster hard drive access.

B. ensured that all users networked to a computer can read files.

C. gives a user more useable hard drive space.

D. allows Windows XP to use all available security features.

E. ensures full compatibility with new software.

Answer: CD

5. IEEE 1284 is a standard for:

A. infrared communication.

B. wireless networks.

C. wired networks.

D. parallel communication.

Answer: D

6. Which of the following is the fastest method to transfer data wirelessly?

A. Bluetooth

B. Standard infrared

C. General Packet Radio System (GPRS)

D. 802.11

Answer: D

7. Which of the following assigns IP addresses to computers on a network? (Select TWO).

A. Exchange Server

B. Residential Router

C. DHCP Server

D. PC assigns its own

E. Switch

Answer: BC

8. Windows XP is being installed from a CD onto a computer that has no operating system. Which of the following installation methods would MOST likely be used?

A. Multiboot

B. Network

C. Attended

D. Automated

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 212-055  

Exam Name : Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform.SE 5.0

SUN 212-055 exam is one of SUN Certifications. Testsoon 212-055 Testing Engine is a executable program that contains all Q&As. This Testing Engine can help you to pass 212-055 exam easily. It covers all necessary knowledge of the 212-055 exam.

We have years of experience and is backed by some of the top class industrious and Certified IT Professionals who keep changing the SUN product Training Tools and Study Guides with the change in Exam Objectives. 212-055 BrainDumps is a product you can trust for timely, prompt and successful preparation of IT Certifications.

If you prepare for the exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the SCJP 212-055 exam (Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform.SE 5.0) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam Number/Code : 1z0-209

Exam Name : Oracle comm.billing&revenue mgmt:System Administrator

1z0-209 test is the important of  Oracle certification. Only you pass the 1z0-209 exam you could have the chance to get Oracle certification. To help examinee, Testsoon publish the Questions and Answers about 1z0-209 exam. And the 318 simulation exam are all designed by expert from Testsoon. Examinees could have an enough prepare by these simulation exercises and pass the 1z0-209 test successfully.

Testsoon also provide free 1z0-209 Demo, examinees can download and use before buying 1z0-209 Q&As, then decide if they need to purchase.

Testsoon Praxis-Prüfungen für Oracle Other Oracle Certification 1z0-051 werden in den höchsten Standards der technischen Genauigkeit mit nur zugelassenen Themaexperten und erschienenen Autoren für Entwicklung geschrieben。

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Other Oracle Certification 1z0-209 exam (Oracle comm.billing&revenue mgmt:System Administrator) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  Oracle 1Z0-209

Title    :  Oracle Comm.Billing&Revenue mgmt:System Administrator

1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a bill item?

A. Usage item

B. Configurable item

C. Settlement item

D. Cycle arrear item

E. Cycle forward item

Answer: C

2. Which of the following is NOT a valid error location for an error that occurred in the CM?

A. PIN_ERRLOC_CM

B. PIN_ERRLOC_FLIST

C. PIN_ERRLOC_PCM

D. PIN_ERRLOC_POID

E. B and C

Answer: C

3. A customer can directly purchase which of the following pricing objects?

A. Deal

B. Plan

C. Product

D. A and B

E. A, B, and C

Answer: D

4. Of the following objects listed, which is NOT created when using PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMER to create an account?

A. /product

B. /service

C. /account

D. /payinfo

E. /item

Answer: A

5. Which of the following steps is required when creating a new FM?

A. Configure the FM as part of the CM

B. Create an opcode-to-function mapping file

C. Define a new opcode with its number in a header file

D. A and B

E. A, B, and C

Answer: E

6. Which of the following opcodes is NOT implemented in the Business Process Tier?

A. PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMER

B. PCM_OP_ACT_ACTIVITY

C. PCM_OP_SEARCH

D. PCM_OP_RATE_ACTIVITY

E. PCM_OP_CUST_MODIFY_CUSTOMER

Answer: C

7. Which of the following is NOT Portal client-side software?

A. Self-Care Manager

B. Pipeline Manager

C. Pricing Center

D. Revenue Assurance Center

E. Business Configuration Center

Answer: B

8. An Infranet.properties file can be found in which of the following default directories?

A. /opt/portal/7.0/apps/pin_billd

B. /opt/portal/7.0/sys/eai_js

C. /opt/portal/7.0/sys/dm_oracle

D. /opt/portal/7.0/sys/cm

E. None of the above

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-208

Exam Name : Oracle comm.billing&revenue mgmt:server developer

"Other Oracle Certification", also known as 1Z0-208 exam, is a Oracle certification. Preparing for the 1Z0-208 exam? Searching 1Z0-208 Test Questions, 1Z0-208 Practice Exam, 1Z0-208 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 128 Q&A to your 1Z0-208 exam preparation. In the 1Z0-208 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Oracle Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Oracle Certification.

Testsoon Practice Exams for Oracle Other Oracle Certification 1Z0-208 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Other Oracle Certification 1Z0-208 exam (ProCurve Secure WAN) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  Oracle 1Z0-208

Title    :  Oracle comm.billing&revenue mgmt:server developer

1. An array called PIN_FLD_ADDRESS is to be added onto the input Flist, input_flistp.  The new Flist pointer for the array will be called array_flistp. Which of the following provides the CORRECT syntax for adding the array onto the input Flist?

A. PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);

B. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, input_flistp, 1, &ebuf);

C. PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, array_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);

D. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, 1, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, &ebuf);

E. array_flistp = PIN_FLIST_ELEM_ADD (input_flistp, PIN_FLD_ADDRESS, 1, &ebuf);

Answer: E

2. ________________ is a Service Integration Manager that integrates Portal with terminal servers to support dialup Internet access service

A. Radius Manager

B. Content Manager

C. GSM Manager

D. EAI Manager

E. WAP Manager

Answer: A

3. Which of the following opcodes is NOT implemented in the Business Process Tier?

A. PCM_OP_CUST_COMMIT_CUSTOMER

B. PCM_OP_ACT_ACTIVITY

C. PCM_OP_SEARCH

D. PCM_OP_RATE_ACTIVITY

E. PCM_OP_CUST_MODIFY_CUSTOMER

Answer: C

4. All Portal opcodes are defined in the ___________________ file.  An opcode corresponds to a ___________________.  To write the code to implement the new opcode, you can use the ___________________ file as a template.

A. ops.h, function, fm_generic_ops.c

B. pcm_ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c

C. ops.h, function, fm_generic_opcode.c

D. pcm_ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c

E. ops.h, program, fm_generic_ops.c

Answer: B

5. Which of the following statements about Opcode-to-function mapping is TRUE?

A. The config structure is included in the CMs pin.conf file

B. The fm_generic_config.c file is provided with Portal SDK as a template for opcode-to-function mapping

C. Each opcode macro name is mapped to one or more C functions

D. A and B

E. A, B, and C

Answer: D

6. Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY   describes the Object Tier of the Portal architecture?

A. This tier can also be referred to as the Data Manager

B. One object tier can be used with multiple data tiers

C. This tier is used to translate Portal data into the format that can be processed by the Data Tier

D. This tier processes all requests coming from the Business Process Tier

E. This tier can also be referred to as the Translation Manager

Answer: B

7. Which of the following would you NOT find in the DMs configuration file?

A. Path and filename of Translation Manager shared libraries

B. Username and password for accessing external systems

C. Queuing manager parameters

D. Hostname and port number of the CM connecting to this DM

E. Database number for the DM

Answer: D

8. Which of the following is NOT a valid error location for an error that occurred in the CM?

A. PIN_ERRLOC_CM

B. PIN_ERRLOC_FLIST

C. PIN_ERRLOC_PCM

D. PIN_ERRLOC_POID

E. B and C

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A05

Exam Name : Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed Citrix Certifition - Citrix 1Y0-A05 practice exam services with the Citrix 1Y0-A05 book and Citrix 1Y0-A05 exam papers. Citrix 1Y0-A05 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the Citrix 1Y0-A05 lab and scenarios and the Citrix 1Y0-A05 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful Citrix 1Y0-A05 online test takers, you would pass the actual Citrix 1Y0-A05 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-A05 exam (Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008 Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  Citrix 1Y0-A05

Title    :  Implementing Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Server 2008

1. Users at a remote site use Citrix XenApp to connect to mission-critical applications. They are required to copy clipboard, TWAIN and hard drive data between the client and the server. In order to ensure sessions have sufficient bandwidth over a congested WAN link, an administrator has decided to restrict the clipboard, TWAIN and hard drive channels to consume no more than 40% of the overall session limit. Based on a network calculation, each user has 200Kbps of bandwidth available to them. Which action can the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario?

A. Configure Session Limits

B. Enable content redirection

C. Configure ICA-TCP settings

D. Enable SpeedScreen Progressive Display

Answer: A

2. An administrator determined that an application pilot environment should be installed. Two servers have been allocated for this purpose. How should the pilot environment be established and why?

A. The servers should be placed in a distinct farm so that testing does NOT impact production.

B. The servers should be placed in a distinct zone so that testing does NOT impact production.

C. The servers should be configured based on virtual servers so that scalability data can be derived for physical servers.

D. The servers should be configured to access a distinct license server to prevent impacting license server communications.

Answer: A

3. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration can be configured through __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)

A. policies

B. farm properties

C. server properties

D. ICA configurations

Answer: BC

4. A company acquired another company but needs to keep the IT departments independent. What must the administrator create in order to keep the IT department independent from that of the acquired company?

A. A new farm

B. A new data store

C. A new license server

D. Additional Citrix XenApp servers

Answer: A

5. An environment consists of two Citrix XenApp farms, each consisting of twelve Citrix XenApp servers. The user community consists of internal, telecommuter, and three vendors that connect to the Citrix XenApp environment on a regular basis. All users are running Windows XP and Internet Explorer.

The following is a list of requirements:

Minimal administrative configuration

Seamless integration into the Start menu

Application delivery for published applications available to all users

Which step should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario?

A. Install the Native client.

B. Configure a XenApp Web site.

C. Install the Embedded Native client.

D. Configure a XenApp Services site.

Answer: D

6. A Citrix XenApp farm consists of three servers each publishing installed applications only. All user access is through Web Interface. During early testing of application streaming, the administrator would like to isolate all streaming activity to only one server. Which three steps could the administrator take to achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. Deploy a second XenApp Web site with resource type streaming and publish the profiled applications on one server.

B. Deploy a second XenApp Services site with resource type streaming and publish the profiled applications on one server.

C. Update the resource type to dual mode streaming on the XenApp Web site and publish the profiled applications on one server.

D. Update the resource type to dual mode streaming on the Web Interface and update the properties of the published applications to stream to client on one server.

E. Update the resource type to dual mode streaming on the Web Interface and apply a User Workspace policy to force streaming and use a filter to apply it on one server.

Answer: ABC

7. After an administrator implemented several new policies, a user reports that he cannot see client drives or printers when connecting to the Citrix XenApp farm. What can the administrator use to verify which policies are in conflict?

A. Report Center

B. Diagnostic Facility

C. Policy Search Engine

D. Terminal Services Configuration

Answer: C

8. What should an administrator install to secure communication between the Web Interface server and Secure Gateway server?

A. Secure Gateway proxy in the DMZ

B. SSL server certificate on the Web Interface server

C. Web Interface server on a Citrix XenApp server in the internal network

D. Secure Gateway Service on a Citrix XenApp server in the internal network

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A11  

Exam Name : Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0

1Y0-A11 test is the important of Citrix certification. Only you pass the 1Y0-A11 exam you could have the chance to get Citrix certification. To help examinee, Testsoon publish the Questions and Answers about 1Y0-A11 exam. And the 104 simulation exam are all designed by expert from Testsoon. Examinees could have an enough prepare by these simulation exercises and pass the 1Y0-A11 test successfully.

Testsoon also provide free 1Y0-A11 Demo, examinees can download and use before buying 1Y0-A11 Q&As, then decide if they need to purchase.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-A11 exam (Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0 Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  Citrix 1Y0-A11

Title    :  Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0

1. Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?

A. entityup

B. entitydown

C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh

D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh

Answer: D

2. How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?

A. Use the default TCP monitor

B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor

C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor

D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected

E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected

Answer: C

3. An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout." Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?

A. SNMP trap

B. SNMP user

C. SNMP group

D. SNMP community

Answer: D

4. Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the back-end servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address. On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?

A. ACL

B. Client

C. Virtual server

D. Back-end server

Answer: A

5. An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance. Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?

A. Client connection count increases

B. Server side request rate increases

C. Client connection count decreases

D. Server side request rate decreases

Answer: D

6. Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds.

How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?

A. set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli

B. add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli

C. set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli

D. add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli

Answer: D

7. An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment.

What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?

A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver

B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected

C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver

D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard once te correct vserver is selected

Answer: B

8. An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required

B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required

C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 Gb/sec

D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8 Gb/sec

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A09  

Exam Name : Implementing Citrix XenServer 5.0

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed Citrix Certifition - Citrix 1Y0-A09 practice exam services with the Citrix 1Y0-A09 book and Citrix 1Y0-A09 exam papers. Citrix 1Y0-A09 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the Citrix 1Y0-A09 lab and scenarios and the Citrix 1Y0-A09 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful Citrix 1Y0-A09 online test takers, you would pass the actual Citrix 1Y0-A09 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification1Y0-A09 exam (Implementing Citrix XenServer 5.0) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Implementing Citrix XenServer 5.0 Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  Citrix 1Y0-A09

Title    :  Implementing Citrix XenServer 5.0

1. Scenario: An administrator is installing XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 in an environment. The administrator has two disks available for storage. According to best practices, how should the administrator configure the local disk storage repositories (SRs) during the initial XenServer installation?

A. Install XenServer on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

B. Install XenServer on one disk and the virtual machine SR on the other disk

C. Install XenServer and an in-place upgrade partition on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

D. Install XenServer and the virtual machine SR on one disk and an in-place upgrade partition on the other disk

Answer: B

2. Scenario: An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. Which upgrade path should the administrator take?

A. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode

B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0

C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0

D. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager

Answer: C

3. Where can an administrator determine when a XenServer Enterprise Edition 0 license will expire?

A. XenCenter

B. XenServer Tools

C. mycitrix.com web site

D. Citrix License Management Console

Answer: A

4. To allow for rapid deployment of XenServer hosts in a large environment, an administrator decides to install XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 using a network boot process. To which type of server must the administrator configure DHCP to communicate?

A. FTP

B. HTTP

C. TFTP

D. HTTPS

Answer: C

5. Scenario: During the creation of a Microsoft Windows 2003 Standard Edition server virtual machine (VM), an administrator is asked to make as many processors available as possible to allow a developer to test a new multi-cpu application. What is the maximum number of VCPUs that an administrator can assign to this VM?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: B

6. According to best practices, which step should an administrator perform before booting the installer CD to upgrade to XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 from XenServer 4.x?

A. Suspend any running virtual machines

B. Delete the current server configuration

C. Re-enter the physical network configuration

D. Backup the existing virtual machines (VMs) with a VM export

Answer: D

7. Which two physical hardware configurations are supported by XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0? (Choose two.)

A. 512GB RAM

B. 256GB RAM

C. 32 CPU cores

D. 128 CPU cores

E. 32-bit architecture

F. 64-bit architecture

Answer: CF

8. How much disk space is required for the control domain and guest VM storage repository in a XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 installation?

A. 4 GB

B. 8 GB

C. 16 GB

D. 32 GB

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A08

Exam Name : Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Se

"Citrix Other Certification", also known as 1Y0-A08 exam, is a Citrix certification. Preparing for the 1Y0-A08 exam? Searching 1Y0-A08 Test Questions, 1Y0-A08 Practice Exam, 1Y0-A08 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 93 Q&A to your 1Y0-A08 exam preparation. In the 1Y0-A08 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Other Certification helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification.

Testsoon Citrix 1Y0-A08 online training can literally take a few minutes to complete, as you set your own rules and settings in our Citrix 1Y0-A08 download software. More than just another Citrix 1Y0-A08 free PDF, the Testsoon advantage comes in multiple forms, where training products can be purchased individually, or at a significant savings in our Citrix 1Y0-A08 quiz bundle packages.

If you do not pass the Citrix Certification 1Y0-A08 exam (Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Sever 2008) on your first attempt using our pass4sure testing engine, we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee.

Exam        :  Citrix 1Y0-A08

Title    :  Advanced Administration for Citrix XenApp 5.0 for Windows Se

1. Scenario: Printing errors are generated randomly in a Citrix XenApp server farm. An investigation reveals that the Citrix Print Manager Service has been failing at random intervals. An administrator is asked to use the Health Monitoring and Recovery feature to check the service.What should the administrator do to monitor the service?

A. Create a custom test

B. Install the HMR Test Pack

C. Add the CPSVCTEST.EXE test

D. Add the SPOOLERTEST.EXE test

Answer: C

2. Scenario: A law firm has two offices, one in New York and the other in Chicago. The Citrix XenApp farm is configured with two zones, one for New York and one for Chicago. The administrators would like to ensure that lawyers traveling to either office can log on to the local Citrix XenApp servers at that location for better user experience. All lawyers are in the Active Directory group "Lawyers". Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure that the lawyers log on to the local Citrix XenApp servers closest to them? (Choose two.)

A. Filter by users

B. Filter by servers

C. Filter by client IP address

D. Configure an Active Directory group policy

E. Configure a zone preference and failover policy for the farm

F. Configure a zone preference and failover policy for each office

Answer: CF

3. In which location can an administrator change the poll interval for the IMA Service when using a SQL data store database?

A. Data store server registry

B. Citrix XenApp server registry

C. Access Management Console

D. XenApp Advanced Configuration tool

Answer: B

4. Scenario: An administrator must implement application streaming to client workstations with no offline access. The company is separated across two branches, New York and California with internal users only. The branches are connected with a dedicated WAN. The IT Manager does NOT want application profiles streamed over the WAN. The Citrix XenApp servers are located at the New York branch.Which configuration should the administrator perform to implement application streaming in this environment?

A. Create an IIS-based file share for the profiles at the New York branch

B. Ensure that only application differentials are streamed to the client device

C. Publish the application using the "Cache at application launch" option when publishing the streamed application

D. Create a file share for the streamed profiles at each location with both locations containing an exact copy of the profiles

Answer: D

5. Which two reasons would cause an administrator to exclude certain applications from Memory Optimization before testing them? (Choose two.)

A. Some application components are digitally signed

B. The applications allow Windows to load the .DLL files

C. The applications are memory-intensive when run in multiple sessions

D. The applications use Windows Rights Management to protect .DLL files

E. The applications download additional components from the Internet during installation

Answer: AD

6. Scenario: Users have complained that some of their applications sometimes do NOT appear when they browse through their published applications on the Web Interface site. The help desk staff has instructed users to refresh the Web Interface site in order to see their application.What can the administrator do to stop these inconsistencies from occurring?

A. Recreate the Web Interface site

B. Reinstall the affected published applications

C. Recreate the Local Host Cache on the XML broker

D. Issue the IISRESET command on the Web Interface server

Answer: C

7. Scenario: An administrator enables Special Folder Redirection in a Citrix XenApp farm. Windows Vista users are able to save files successfully to their local Documents' folder. However, when a user tries to save a music file to the Music folder, the user was unable to see the file on the local client drive.What would prevent the user from seeing the saved music file on the local machine?

A. The user saved the file as a .WAV instead of .MP3

B. The Special Folder Redirection feature only works for the Documents and Desktop folders

C. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp Web site properties

D. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp Services site properties

Answer: B

8. Scenario: An administrator of a multi-zone Citrix XenApp farm has implemented zone preference and failover in order to direct users to the closest zone. Over time, the administrator has noticed that some users are NOT being directed to the proper zone. All zones and zone preference and failover configurations have been reviewed and are configured correctly. Which two steps should the administrator take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Restart the Citrix XML Service

B. Run IISRESET on all Web Interface servers

C. Recreate the Local Host Cache on all the Data Collectors

D. Ensure that the ICA protocol is listening on TCP port 1494

E. Ensure all users access hosted applications through a Web Interface site

Answer: CE

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A02  

Exam Name : Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration

 "Citrix Other Certification", also known as 1Y0-A02 exam, is a Citrix certification. Preparing for the 1Y0-A02 exam? Searching 1Y0-A02 Test Questions, 1Y0-A02 Practice Exam, 1Y0-A02 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 41 Q&A to your 1Y0-A02 exam preparation. In the 1Y0-A02 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Other Certification  helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification.

Testsoon Practice Exams for certifications 1Y0-A02 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our Testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Citrix Other CertificationY0-A02 exam (Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  Citrix 1Y0-A02

Title    :  Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration

1. What is the function of full emulation?

A. Simulating the complete hardware

B. Running applications as conventional local software

C. Leveraging of a hypervisor for the underlying technology

D. Offering an API that modifies the guest operating system

Answer: A

2. What is an advantage of application-based virtualization solutions?

A. Higher consolidation ratios

B. Data center high availability

C. Centralized server management

D. The ability to use diverse hardware

Answer: D

3. Scenario: An administrator wants to leverage the following XenServer Enterprise Edition features:

1. XenMotion

2. Fast cloning

3. Thin provisioning

4. Shared virtual machine storage

5. Automatic virtual machine placement

Which two storage solutions must the administrator use to allow for all of these features? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp

B. Local disk

C. Fibre-Channel

D. Software iSCSI

E. Hardware iSCSI

F. NFS-based NAS

Answer: AF

4. What does XenServer Enterprise Edition use to convert storage devices into a storage pool?

A. Local disk drive

B. Network disk drive

C. Logical volume manager

D. Physical volume manager

Answer: C

5. An administrator is configuring a new XenServer implementation and wants to use the Paravirtualized (PV) drivers for Windows virtual machines.

What must the administrator install in order to use the PV drivers?

A. XenServer Tools

B. WHQL Signed Driver

C. Local Host Network Tools

D. RealTek Fast Ethernet driver

Answer: A

6. Which statement about the use of internal and external virtual networks is true?

A. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical NIC, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.

B. Internal networks are used to connect to VLANs on the physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.

C. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to Virtual Machines on multiple servers.

D. Internal networks are used to connect to other Virtual Machines on the same server, whereas external networks are used to connect to physical NICs.

Answer: D

7. Which mechanism for changing the physical network IP configuration is supported on a XenServer 1 host?

A. Use the xe command line interface

B. Use the XenServer CD installer system

C. Use of the XenCenter Client network configuration menu

D. Use a text editor to edit the network configuration files in control domain

Answer: A

8. Scenario: A Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition virtual machine (VM) running on a XenServer host with four physical CPUs is consistently reporting high virtual CPU (vCPU) utilization. Currently, the VM is assigned one vCPU.

According to Citrix best practices, what is the maximum number of vCPUs that can be assigned to the Windows Server 2003 VM?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

E. 32

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-800

Exam Name : Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon & Load Testing

What does Citrix Certification mean all in all? In fact, it is possible for certificate to play a positive role in getting a job or promotion. Citrix Certification is a kind of comparatively fair measure of one's skill level and winning a certificate means that you master certain skill. Passing the Citrix certification exam is a ticket to obtain a certain level of salary, or enter a particular company. Getting Citrix certification can bring you instantly considerable economic reward.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-800 exam (Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon & Load Testing) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf, Mon, &Load Testing Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam      :  Citrix 1Y0-800

Title   :  Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon & Load Testing

1. Scenario: Following miscommunication during a rollout of new hard drives and memory, some devices in the environment were not upgraded as planned. The IT Manager asked the administrator to identify the devices that were upgraded.

Which type of report would the administrator use to obtain the necessary information?

A. Remote

B. Asset Change

C. Memory Upgrade

D. System Comparison

Answer: B

2. An administrator is creating a new user account which Reporting Services will use to connect to the Report Server Database.

Which two steps should the administrator complete when creating the new user account? (Choose two.)

A. Add the user account to a defined group.

B. Define security parameters for the user account.

C. Set a non-expiring password for the user account.

D. Grant the user account database access privileges.

Answer: CD

3. Scenario: A company recently purchased Citrix Edgsight 4.5 and plans to use a production Microsoft SQL 2000 Server for the EdgeSight 4.5 database. The administrator wants to install all other EdgeSight components onto a single server.

Which two components can the administrator install on the server separate from the Microsoft SQL 2000 database server? (Choose two.)

A. Citrix License Server

B. Citrix EdgeSight Agent

C. Citrix EdgeSight Server Console

D. Citrix EdgeSight Agent Deployment Server

Answer: AC

4. After an initial EdgeSight Agent installation, the administrator must __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A. backup the EdgeSight database

B. restart the Citrix Licensing service

C. reboot the device onto which the EdgeSight Agent is installed

D. use the Citrix EdgeSight Post-Installation Setup Wizard to perform initial configurations

Answer: C

5. What does an administrator need to do in order to enable secure communications from EdgeSight Agents to server?

A. Select to enable SSL Support.

B. Select to disable SSL Support.

C. Install and configure third-party VPN.

D. Turn on the firewall on the agent device.

Answer: A

6. Scenario: An administrator is designing a proof of concept (POC) for an EdgeSight 4.5 implementation. The company will allocate only the minimum number of servers necessary for the POC.  The administrator has obtained license keys for the necessary software and wants to get the lab hardware operational as quickly as possible.

What are the minimum number of EdgeSight servers needed for the project?

A. One

B. Two

C. Four

D. Three

Answer: A

7. An administrator needs to configure the agent to look for new alerts and/or new worker schedules more than once a day.

Which worker configuration does the administrator need to configure to meet the requirements of the scenario?

A. Asset History

B. Configuration Check

C. Fault Report Cleanup

D. Database Maintenance

Answer: B

8. Scenario: The level two help desk forwards a call to the administrator to help a user who is currently experiencing difficulties accessing data from an application. The response times seem slow. The administrator decides to collect real-time information to diagnose the issue.

Which report should the administrator use?

A. Alerts

B. System

C. Summary

D. Processes

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-740

Exam Name : Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed Citrix Certifition - Citrix 1Y0-740 practice exam services with the Citrix 1Y0-740 book and Citrix 1Y0-740 exam papers. Citrix 1Y0-740 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the Citrix 1Y0-740 lab and scenarios and the Citrix 1Y0-740 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful Citrix 1Y0-740 online test takers, you would pass the actual Citrix 1Y0-740 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-740 exam (Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  Citrix IY0-740

Title    :  Citrix WANScaler 4.2: Administration Exam

1. Scenario: An administrator is instructed to implement two WANScaler appliances in high availability mode for a virtual inline deployment. In this environment, the switches and routers are already connected. What is the minimum number of Ethernet cables required to set up the WANScaler appliances in a single LAN, single WAN deployment?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

2. Scenario: An administrator would like to implement five WANScaler appliances in an environment. Four of the appliances are deployed in the branch offices and one in the data center. Each office has a single circuit to the data center. All appliances will be implemented in inline mode. The administrator wants to leverage the automatic bandwidth allocation feature. The administrator has decided that WANScaler QoS will not be implemented in this environment.

Which physical WANScaler topology will be appropriate for this implementation?

A. Mesh

B. Full Mesh

C. Point-to-point

D. Hub-and-spoke

Answer: D

3. In a high availability pair, configuration changes should be made using which IP address?

A. Virtual IP address

B. Subnet IP address

C. WANScaler IP address

D. Management IP address

Answer: A

4. An administrator is implementing WANScaler appliances in an environment. The administrator has been instructed to configure WANScaler appliances to accelerate traffic. What are three types of traffic that can be accelerated by WANScaler appliances? (Choose three.)

A. SIP

B. FTP

C. NFS

D. CIFS

E. TFTP

Answer: BCD

5. Scenario: An administrator designing a WANScaler implementation would like the implementation to be set up based on the following considerations:

1.The data center supports multiple branch offices, of which only one has a WANScaler appliance.

2.The branch office WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the branch office.

3.The headquarters WANScaler appliance should connect directly to the WAN router for the headquarters.

4.All traffic from the branch office to servers at the headquarters should flow through the branch office WANScaler appliance.

Which WANScaler deployment topology should be used in this type of implementation?

A. Star

B. Token Ring

C. Point-to-point

D. Hub-and-spoke

Answer: C

6. Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in the branch office of a telemarketing environment. Most of the traffic in this environment is voice over IP based. However, the billing and collections team needs access to web servers in the corporate office. Users in this environment have complained that it takes too long for them to access data in the morning, between 9:00 AM and 10:30 AM. Coincidentally, this is when most of the billing and collections employees begin their day.

Which traffic type could the administrator accelerate in this environment?

A. FTP

B. UDP

C. HTTP

D. Telnet

Answer: C

7. Which TCP variant would be appropriate in an environment where a site is connected to multiple WAN links, each of which has no guaranteed bandwidth?

A. Inline

B. Variable

C. Softboost

D. Hardboost

E. Full bandwidth

Answer: C

8. Scenario: An administrator is implementing a WANScaler appliance in an environment where the majority of the traffic types are candidates for acceleration. There is an undetermined amount of critical unaccelerated traffic that needs to be considered.

Which two options should the administrator implement to ensure that unaccelerated network traffic types are not suppressed in this environment? (Choose two.)

A. Select hardboost.

B. Select partial bandwidth.

C. Fix the bandwidth limit to 50%.

D. Set the initial bandwidth to 90%.

Answer: BD

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-731

Exam Name : Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam

1Y0-731 test is the important of Citrix certification. Only you pass the 1Y0-731 exam you could have the chance to get Citrix certification. To help examinee, Testsoon publish the Questions and Answers about 1Y0-731 exam. And the 112 simulation exam are all designed by expert from Testsoon. Examinees could have an enough prepare by these simulation exercises and pass the 1Y0-731 test successfully.

Testsoon also provide free 1Y0-731 Demo, examinees can download and use before buying 1Y0-731 Q&As, then decide if they need to purchase.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-731 exam (Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Citrix Netscaler 8.0: Administration Exam Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam      :  Citrix 1Y0-731

Title   :  Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam

1. What must an administrator configure the NetScaler log to record in order to know when someone has altered the system configurations?

A. Access logs

B. Event messages

C. System counters

D. Audited commands

Answer: D

2. An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."

Which two options could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP user

B. SNMP group

C. SNMP manager

D. SNMP community

Answer: CD

3. An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler system to resolve DNS queries using an external DNS server with an IP address of 10.10.10.1.

Which command could the administrator use to configure this?

A. add nameserver DNS1 10.10.10.1

B. add lb vserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1

C. add server DNS1 10.10.10.1 -external

D. add nameserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1 -local

Answer: A

4. A company is planning on implementing NetScaler systems in High Availability pairs.

Which entry in the NS.CONF file of the secondary system needs to be unique from those of the primary system?

A. VMAC

B. Node ID

C. MIP address

D. NSIP address

Answer: D

5. Scenario: An administrator is configuring monitoring for web servers in the environment that often results in services being marked as DOWN because of slow back-end servers. The administrator wants to configure the virtual server and services so that existing connections stay open when a service is marked down but not when a virtual server is marked DOWN.

How must the administrator configure the service and virtual server to reflect this dependency?

A. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED

　set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED

B. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED

　set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED

C. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED

　set service svc1 -downStateFlush DISABLED

D. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED

　set service svc 1 -downStateFlush DISABLED

Answer: D

6. Scenario: An administrator is planning on deploying a NetScaler system into a network environment using SNMP. The administrator plans on enabling the 11 SNMP traps relating to request and response rates.

Which two objects must the administrator configure in order for the SNMP traps to send alerts? (Choose two.)

A. SNMP destination

B. Source IP address

C. Threshold levels for the traps

D. Additional IP addresses on which the SNMP service can respond to SNMP queries

Answer: AC

7. An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required

B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required

C. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 1Gb/sec

D. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 8 Gb/sec

Answer: C

8. Scenario: An administrator introduced two new servers into a server farm that can handle more traffic than the older servers. The current load balancing method set for the virtual server managing the traffic for this group of servers is Least Connections. The administrator wants to maintain the load balancing method but also wants to use the new servers to improve performance by having them take more of the traffic than the older servers.

Which advanced option must the administrator configure to achieve this?

A. Spillover

B. Max Client

C. Backup vserver

D. Service Weights

E. Global Setting Override

Answer: D

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-700

Exam Name : Citrix Application Firewall 8.0: Administration Exam

1Y0-700 test is the important of Citrix certification. Only you pass the 1Y0-700 exam you could have the chance to get Citrix certification. To help examinee, Testsoon publish the Questions and Answers about 1Y0-700 exam. And the 58 simulation exam are all designed by expert from Testsoon. Examinees could have an enough prepare by these simulation exercises and pass the 1Y0-700 test successfully.

Testsoon also provide free 1Y0-700 Demo, examinees can download and use before buying 1Y0-700 Q&As, then decide if they need to purchase.

Our 1Y0-700 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 1Y0-700 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. Citrix CCA, CCA XP, CCEA Certification preparation Q and A provided by Testsoon will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-700 exam (Citrix Application Firewall 8.0: Administration Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam      :  Citrix 1Y0-700

Title   :  Citrix Application Firewall 8.0: Administration Exam

1. Scenario: A banking company has decided to deploy an Application Firewall in their network environment, which already has two third-party load balancers. The Application Firewall deployment will be used to inspect approximately 400 Mb/sec of traffic. How should an administrator deploy the system in this environment?

A. As a module on a NetScaler appliance

B. As a standalone Application Firewall appliance

C. As a module on a NetScaler High Availability pair

D. As a cluster of standalone Application Firewall appliances

Answer:D

2. Scenario: A media corporation has a website where viewers can read articles on current topics and stream videos of daily newscasts. The streaming videos are provided by IPTV, a streaming media application utilizing UDP. The company decides to add an Application Firewall to their network deployment to protect their site from hackers. To determine how many devices are necessary, the administrator must determine which traffic requires protection.

Which content data type(s) does the Application Firewall need to inspect in this environment?

A. Text/html

B. Images and text/html

C. UDP packets and text

D. Text/html, UDP packets and images

Answer:A

3. The positive security model as applied in the Application Firewall can protect against _____________ and _____________ attacks. (Choose the two options that best complete the sentence.)

A. worms

B. viruses

C. zero day

D. layer 3 network

E. application layer

Answer:CE

4. Scenario:  A busy web application (400 Mb/sec) for an ecommerce company includes pictures of items for sale that are displayed to shoppers with text descriptions, an input field to accept customer reviews, a shopping cart and an encrypted billing page for credit cards. Many more customers browse than buy. An administrator needs to create profiles for this web application on the Application Firewall. How many profiles should an administrator configure for this web application for security with maximum performance?

A. One, an advanced profile for the reviews and billing pages

B. Two, a basic profile for the reviews page and an advanced profile for the billing page

C. Three, a basic profile for browsing and separate advanced profiles for the reviews and the billing pages

D. Four, separate basic profiles for the images and text, and separate advanced profiles for the reviews and the billing pages

Answer:B

5. Scenario: The manufacturing department of a global biomedical company uses a web application to access manufacturing ratios and QA testing results from external plants that manufacture the biomedical devices. All the information for all the plants is stored in a data warehouse based on a Microsoft SQL server and accessed from the web application by running reports. Users receive instructions through a popup and then select the specific data for a report through a series of dynamically-generated drop-down menus populated from the Microsoft SQL database. Because the company is global, the web application also has language options that the user can select for the report to be delivered in.

Which part of the application can access sensitive data in this scenario?

A. The popup

B. The language options

C. The resultant URL for a report

D. The drop-down menus for the report details

Answer:D

6. The positive security model works with Application Firewall by ____________. (Choose a phrase to complete this statement correctly.)

A. protecting web servers based on learning

B. protecting web servers based on signatures

C. only allowing traffic that matches approved patterns

D. allowing traffic that does not match blocked patterns

Answer:C

7. An administrator is considering adding an Application Firewall deployment to an environment that contains two network firewalls, a public network and a private network. Where should the administrator place the Application Firewall?

A. In the DMZ

B. Behind the private network

C. In front of the public network

D. In front of the two network firewalls

Answer:A

8. An administrator is deploying a standalone Application Firewall in the network environment depicted in the exhibit.

Click the Exhibit button to view the network diagram.

What should the VIP address range be for the Application Firewall in this environment?

A. 1.1.100.0/24

B. 10.3.19.0/24

C. 172.16.1.0/24

D. 10.3.19.100/124

Answer:C

Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-614

Exam Name : Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Design

Testsoon  provides you unsurpassed Citrix Certifition - Citrix 1Y0-614 practice exam services with the Citrix 1Y0-614 book and Citrix 1Y0-614 exam papers. Citrix 1Y0-614 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the Citrix 1Y0-614 lab and scenarios and the Citrix 1Y0-614 sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful Citrix 1Y0-614 online test takers, you would pass the actual Citrix 1Y0-614 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-614 exam (Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Design) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Citrix Access Suite 4.0:Design Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a Citrix Certification certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Citrix Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam        :  Network General Corp

1Y0-614

Title    :  Citrix Access Suite 4.0:Design

1. Harder Electronics plans to implement Presentation Server for users in Shanghai. How should the Shanghai site be designed?

A. Shanghai should be deployed as its own farm with its own License Server.

B. Shanghai should be aded to an existing producion farm and zone and should share licenses with the corporat License Server.

C. Shanghai should be deployed as its own zone with its own License Server.

D. Shanghai should be deployed as its own zone and should share licenses with the corporate License Server.

Answer: B

2. Harder Electronics has back-end databases that support HR+, TempoLicense, MfgData+, and Outlook. Based on the current locations of these databases, corporate office, and users, where should these database sources be moved?

A. The HR+ database should be centralized in New York, and all other databases should be kept in their current locations.

B. Both HR+ and the MfgData+ databases should be centralized in New York, and all other databases should be kept in their current locations.

C. All databases should be moved to New York.

D. All databases should be kept in their current locations.

Answer: A

3. If Harder Electronics decides to centralize the MfgData+ databases in New York, where should the Presentation Servers hosting the MfgData+ application be deployed?

A. Servers hosting MfgData+ should be deployed in New York.

B. Servers hosting the MfgData+ application should be deployed in New York, Mexico City, Shanghai and Bangalore.

C. The MfgData+ application should be deployed in Mexico City, Shanghai and Bangalore.

D. The Presentation Servers hosting MfgData+ should be deployed in all locations.

Answer: C

4. Based upon the given environment and requirements of Harder Electronics and the design decisions you're made so far, how would you design the zones?

A. Consolidate the eight data centers into one data center in New York based on a single zone.

B. Consolidate the three MEX zones into a single zone and the two PROD zones into a single, separate zone.

C. Consolidate the three MEX zones into a single zone and segregate the test/development zone within the PROD farm into a separate farm.

D. Segregate each data center into a zone, as the number of servers at each site is equivalent and adequate bandwidth exists across data centers.

Answer: C

5. How should the data store be designed?

A. An MSDE data store database should be deployed in New York with daily incremental backups and weekly full backups.

B. The Access data store database should be retained since it already contains all farm information.

C. An Oracle data store database should be deployed in New York with updates occurring only once per day.

D. A SQL Server data store database should be deployed in New York with daily incremental backups and weekly full backups.

Answer: D

6. Based upon the given environment and requirements of Harder Electronics and the design decisions you're made so far, would you recommend a dedicated zone data collector?

A. No, instead apply the default load evaluator so that the server is subject to lower user load.

B. No, because Harder Electronics does not have the minimum recommended number of servers in its farms for dedicating a zone data collector.

C. Yes, combine the functions of the data collector and data store on a single server, as Harder Electronics is considering upgrading to SQL Server.

D. Yes, this will enable Harder Electronic the ability to expand the number of servers in the farm without impacting the overall performance of the Presentation Server environment.

Answer: B

7. Based upon the given environment and requirement of Harder Electronics and the design decisions your're made so far, would you recomment configuring zone preference and failover?

A. Yes, because they currently do not have a disaster recovery plan in place.

B. No, because they do not have site failover for back-end systems at this time.

C. Yes, because the data centers as well as backend data sources are geographically dispersed.

D. No, because zone preference and failover is only available when there are at least two zones in a given farm.

Answer: D

8. Why should a static port be defined?

A. By defining a static port, system resources can be conserved.

B. A static port will allow for License Server communication to be more secure; thus, this is optimal.

C. There is no other way to establish communication over firewalls other than defining a static port.

D. To avoid the unpredictability of a dynamic port, a static port should be defined becuause it is more secure.

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 117-302

Exam Name : LPI 302 Mixed Environment Exam

" Lpi 302 Mixed Environment Exam", also known as 117-302 exam, is a LPI certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 146 Q&As to your 117-302 Exam preparation. In the 117-302 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in LPI Certifications helping to ready you for your successful LPI Certification

Testsoon offers free demo for LPIC Level 3 117-302 exam (LPI 302 Mixed Environment Exam). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the LPIC Level 3 117-302 exam (LPI 302 Mixed Environment Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  LPI 117-302

Title    :  LPI 302 Mixed Environment Exam

1. Which of the following are true of CIFS? (Choose TWO correct Answers)

A.Filenames can be in any character set.

B.Filenames can have a maximum length of 127 characters.

C.Unlike SMB, CIFS is not optimized for slow network connections.

D.Opportunistic Locks are supported.

Answer: AD

2. Which file contains the information that is retrieved by the following command:

# net getlocalsid SID for domain SERVER is: S152120043211811294720513754763961

A./etc/samba/secret.tdb

B./var/lib/samba/winbind_idmap.tdb

C./var/cache/localsid.tdb

D./var/cache/sid.tdb

Answer: A

3. Which command will import an smbpasswd file located in /etc/samba to a TDB data file?

______ i smbpassd:/etc/samba/smbpasswd

Answer: pdbedit

4. What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server has the IP address 19168.1.2?

A.option netbioswinsservers 192.168.1.2;

B.option winsnetbiosservers 192.168.1.2;

C.option winsnameservers 192.168.1.2;

D.option netbiosnameservers 192.168.1.2;

Answer: D

5. For Samba to be able to work as a PDC, some modifications are needed in its main configuration file. Select the THREE options below that show the required actions for this task.

A.The Samba server has to be a logon server. This can be configured by the domain logons directive.

B.The Samba server needs to have the logon and the account creation scripts, to properly setup the PDC environment.

C.The Samba server must be a Domain Master Browser. To configure this, the domain master directive must be set to yes.

D.The time server = yes directive needs to be configured, so Samba will behave as a WINS server and also a Time server.

E.The security = user directive must be set.

Answer: ACE

6. The command _______ is used on a Samba 3 server to modify the SSID in an existing NT profile file called NTUser.DAT.

Answer: profiles

7. What does the following command below do?

smbclient //server/Reports U func

A.The Samba server administrator is providing access permissions to the Reports share to user func.

B.User func is downloading the content located in the Reports share of Samba server.

C.Computer func is trying to make a connection with a Samba server share, and the command will prompt for the username and password.

D.User func is trying to connect to the Reports share in the Samba server.

Answer: D

8. After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they receive an Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely cause of this?

A.The user entered the wrong username and/or password.

B.The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.

C.The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.

D.The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.

Answer: B

Our Exam 117-302 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 117-302 Exam. The 117-302 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Exam Number/Code : 117-301  

Exam Name : LPI 301 Core Exam

"LPI 301 Core Exam", also known as 117-301 exam, is a Lpi certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 130 Q&As to your 117-301 Exam preparation. In the 117-301 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in LPI Certifications helping to ready you for your successful LPI Certification.

Testsoon provides you unsurpassed LPI Certifition - LPI 117-301 practice exam services with the Lpi 117-301 book and LPI 117-301 exam papers. LPI 117-301 tests in Testsoon can be 100% guaranteed to make you pass the exam.

Both the LPI 117-301 lab and scenarios and the LPI 117-301  sample questions can assure that you have the most efficient training either online or offline. As thousands of successful LPI 117-301 online test takers, you would pass the actual Lpi117-301 exam too!

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the LPIC Level 3  117-301 exam (LPI 301 Core Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 117-301 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 117-301 Exam. The 117-301 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you pass test in your first try, and also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  LPI 117-301

Title    :  LPI 301 Core Exam

1. Which of the following describes correct LDAP service definitions? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. LDAP was developed as a lightweight alternative to DAP.

B. LDAPv6 is the latest stable version specified by RFCs.

C. LDAP follows the X.500 directory standard.

D. X.500 directories can run only over TCP/IP.

E. LDAP is optimized for searching information.

Answer:  ACE

2. Which statements are true of object classes in an LDAP directory? (Choose TWO correct answers)

A. Auxiliary object classes - when used on their own - provide access to extended schema.

B. An entry cannot have more than one auxiliary object class.

C. An entry cannot have more than one structural object class.

D. Once an entry has been created, its structural object class cannot be changed without re-creating the entry.

E. Abstract object classes are no longer officially support by the LDAP protocol.

Answer:  CD

3. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the LDIF file format:

A. It must contains a "dn" line (or distinguished name), that indicates where the attributes listed in the following lines of the file must be added.

B. In the file, a blank line separates one entry from another one.

C. If the attribute contains binary data, some specific configurations must be made for this entry.

D. The LDIF file accepts any type of file encoding.

Answer:  D

4. Which of the following is the correct syntax for including a schema file in slapd.conf?

A. include /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema

B. allow /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema

C. permit /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema

D. add /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema

Answer:  A

5. When assigned to the ref attribute for ou=people,dc=example,dc=com, which of the following values will create a subordinate knowledge link to slave.example.com?

A. ldap://slave.example.com/ou=people,dc=example,dc=com

B. ldap://slave.example.com?ou=people,dc=example,dc=com

C. ldap://slave.example.com ou=people,dc=example,dc=com

D. ldap://slave.example.com,ou=people,dc=example,dc=com

Answer:  A

6. What does the LDIF acronym stand for?

A. Lightweight Database Interchange Format

B. LDAP Database Interchange Format

C. LDAP Data Internet File

D. LDAP Data Interchange Format

Answer:  D

7. What is true of any created custom attribute or object class?

A. It cannot be placed in one of the default distributed schema files.

B. The name must be registered with IANA to avoid conflicts with other custom schemas.

C. It must have a unique OID.

D. It must not contain any numbers.

Answer:  C

8. A private OID should be obtained for a company when:

A. that company runs out of public OIDs.

B. the company intends to use LDAP for commercial purposes.

C. the company wants to make their directory available to the public on the World Wide Web.

D. the company plans to create custom schema files for their directory.

Answer:  D

Exam Number/Code : 117-202

Exam Name : LPIC Level 2 Exam 202

"LPI Level 2 Exam 202", also known as 117-202 exam, is a LPI certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 160 Q&As to your 117-202 Exam preparation. In the 117-202 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in LEVEL 2 helping to ready you for your successful LPI Certification.

Testsoon offers free demo for LPIC Level 2 117-202 exam (Lpi Level 2 Exam 202). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the LPIC Level 2 117-202 exam (Lpi Level 2 Exam 202) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Exam 117-202 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your 117-202 Exam. The 117-202 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you pass test in your first try, and also save your valuable time.

Exam        :  LPI 117-202

Title    :  LPI Level 2 Exam 202

1. A securityconscious administrator would change which TWO of the following  lines found in an SSH configuration file?

A. Protocol 2,1

B. PermitEmptyPasswords no

C. Port 22

D. PermitRootLogin yes

E. IgnoreRhosts yes

Answer: AD

2. Which of the following organisations track and report on security related flaws in computer technology? (Please select TWO answers)

A. Bugtraq

B. CERT

C. CSIS

D. Freshmeat

E. Kernel.org

Answer: AB

3. The syntax of the procmail configuration file is?

A. :0[flags][:[lockfile]]

[* condition]

action

B. [* condition]

action

:0[flags][:[lockfile]]

C. :0[flags][:[lockfile]]

[* condition] action

D. :0:[flags][:[lockfile]]:[* condition]

action

E. :0[flags][:[lockfile]]:[* condition]:action

Answer: A

4. A GRUB boot loader installed in the MBR was accidentally overwritten.  After booting with a rescue CDROM, how can the lost GRUB first stage loader be recovered?

A. Use cp to restore a previous backup of the MBR.

B. Install LILO since there is no easy way to recover GRUB.

C. Running mformat will create a new MBR and fix GRUB using info from grub.conf.

D. Run grubinstall after verifying that grub.conf is correct.

E. Run fdisk mbr /dev/hda assuming that the boot hardisk is /dev/hda.

Answer: D

5. The internal network (192.168.1.0192.168.1.255) needs to be able to relay email through the site's sendmail server.  What line must be added to /etc/mail/access to allow this?

A. 192.168.1.0/24         RELAY

B. 192.168.1              RELAY

C. 192.168.1.0/24         OK

D. 192.168.1              OK

Answer: B

6. What happens when the Linux kernel can't mount the root filesystem when booting?

A. An error message is shown, showing which device couldn't be mounted or informing that init couldn't be found.

B. An error message is shown and the system reboots after a keypress.

C. An error message is shown and the system boots in maintainence mode.

D. An error message is shown and the administrator is asked to specify a valid root filesystem to continue the boot process.

E. An error message is shown, stating that the corresponding kernel module couldn't be loaded.

Answer: A

7. To allow X connections to be forwarded from or through an SSH server, what line must exist in the sshd configuration file?

Answer: X11Forwarding yes

8. Journalling doesn't appear to be working on an ext3 filesystem.  When booting, the following line appears:

VFS: Mounted root (ext2 filesystem) readonly.

What could be causing the problem?

A. An old version of e2fsprogs is installed.

B. The kernel does not contain ext3 support.

C. The filesystem is specified as ext2 in /etc/fstab.

D. The system was not shut down cleanly.

Answer: B

Exam Number/Code : 117-201

Exam Name : LPIC Level 2 Exam 201

"lp1 level 2 exam 201", also known as 117-201 exam, is a Lpi certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Testsoon has assembled to take you through 160 Q&As to your 117-201 Exam preparation. In the 117-201 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in LEVEL 2 helping to ready you for your successful LPI Certification.

We are all well aware that a major problem in the IT industry is that there is a lack of quality study materials. Our 117-201 Preparation Exam Material provides you everything you will need to take a certification examination. Details are researched and produced by Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, logical and verified explanations for the answers. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the LPIC Level 2 117-201 exam (Lpi Level 2 Exam 201) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Exam        :  Lpi 117-201

Title    :  LPI Level 2 Exam 201

1. A zone file on the DNS server has been updated. Which of the following commands will tell named to reload its zone files? (Please select TWO correct answers)

A. killall HUP named

B. killall named

C. rndc reload

D. rndc flush

E. namedcheckzone r

Answer: AC

2. A 2.6.9ac1 kernel would be

A. an alpha kernel.

B. someone's patch to a stable kernel.

C. a stable kernel.

D. an unstable kernel.

E. someone's patch to an unstable kernel.

Answer: B

3. If the command arp f is run, which file will be read by default?

A. /etc/hosts

B. /etc/ethers

C. /etc/arp.conf

D. /etc/networks

E. /var/cache/arp

Answer: B

4. You are compiling some software from source. After running ./configure with the appropriate arguments and no errors, what is the next command to run?

Answer: make    make all

5. Performing a DNS lookup with dig results in this answer:

;; QUESTION SECTION:

;5.123.168.192.inaddr.arpa.    IN      PTR

;; ANSWER SECTION:

5.123.168.192.inaddr.arpa. 600 IN   PTR     linuserv.example.net.123.168.192.inaddr.arpa.

;; AUTHORITY SECTION:

123.168.192.inaddr.arpa. 600 IN     NS      linuserv.example.net.

;; ADDITIONAL SECTION:

linuserv.example.net.     600  IN      A       192.168.123.5

What might be wrong in the zone definition?

A. Nothing.  All seems to be good.

B. There's no "." after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.

C. There's no "." after linuserv in the PTR record in the forward lookup zone file.

D. There's no "." after linuserv.example.net in the PTR record in the reverse lookup zone file.

E. The "." in the NS definition in reverse lookup zone has to be removed.

Answer: D

6. A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?

A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf.

B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1.

C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1.

D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file.

E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1.

Answer: AD

7. Which single parameter, when passed to nmap, will instruct nmap to perform a fast scan? (Provide only the option)

Answer: -F

8. How can the label root be added to the ext2 filesystem on /dev/sda1? Please enter the command with all parameter(s) and/or option(s) below.

Answer: /sbin/tune2fs -L root /dev/sda1    tune2fs -L root /dev/sda1

Exam Number/Code : 117-199

Exam Name : Ubuntu Level 1 Exam

Our 117-199 Exam will provide you with exam questions and verified answers that reflect the actual exam. These questions and answers provide you with the experience of taking the actual test. Our 117-199 Exam is not just questions and answers. They are your access to high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity. Certification Experts, Certified Computer Trainers, Technical Coworker and Comprehensive Language Masters, who have a solid, verified and certified background and high technical expertise, have compiled these detailed questions and answers. LPI Certification preparation Q and A provided by Testsoon will make you feel like you are taking an actual exam at a Prometric or VUE center.

Testsoon  Practice Exams for Lpi 117-199 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

If you prepare for the exam using our testsoon testing engine, we guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the LPIC Level 1 117-199 exam (Ubuntu Level 1 Exam) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free.

Our Ubuntu Level 1 Exam Exam Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take a LEVEL 1 certification examination. Details are researched and produced by LPI Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical.

Exam      :  LPI 117-199

Title    :  Ubuntu Level 1 Exam

1. Which group does a user have to be a member of in order to access removable storage media?

Answer: plugdev

2. What GUI tool is used to create new users? (Supply only the name of the executable file without a path)

Answer: users-admin

3. What is true of the gconfdaemon

A. It provides back end storage for the gconf database.

B. It notifies all applications when a preference value changes.

C. It is started at boot time.

D. It constantly polls all Gnome applications for changed preference values.

Answer: B

4. Which group does a user have to be a member of in order to access the modem?

Answer: dialout

5. Which list shows all official Ubuntu distributions and derivatives?

A. Ubuntu, Xubuntu, Zubuntu, Gubuntu, nUbuntu

B. Ubuntu, Kubuntu, Zubuntu, Edubuntu, nUbuntu

C. Ubuntu, Kubuntu, Edubuntu, Xubuntu, ImpiLinux

D. Ubuntu, Gubuntu, Zubuntu, Xubuntu, ImpiLinux

Answer: C

6. How do you see which packages a package depends on (e.g. gimp  )

A. apt cache   show deps gimp

B. aptitude show gimp

C. apt show all gimp

D. dpkg show gimp

Answer: B

7. Which file must be edited to tune DMA on individual CD ROM drives?

Answer: /etc/hdparm.conf  /etc/default/hdparm

8. You want all users on a machine to be able to administer printers. What line in your /etc/sudoerswould achieve this

A. ALL ALL = /usr/bin/gnome cups manager

B. /usr/bin/gnome cups manager, ALL, ALL, users

C. /usr/bin/gnome cups manager (ALL) ALL,

users

D. ALL (ALL) = /usr/bin/gnome cups manager

Answer: A